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CBSE Board Class 12 Physical Education Answer Key 2024 and Question Papers, Download PDF All SETs

The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducted the Class 12 Physical Education board exam today, March 12th, 2024. The exam was conducted between 10.30 am to 1.30 pm.

Now, as the exam is over, we bring you post-exam review, paper analysis and student feedback on the difficulty level of CBSE Class 12 Physical Education exam 2024. Compare your answers with the CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2024 Solved PDF available on this page.

 👉 CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key

CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Exam 2024 Key Highlights

Board Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
Official Website cbse.gov.in
Class 12
Subject Physical Education
Exam Date March 012, 2024
Exam Time 10.30 AM to 1.30 PM
Exam Difficulty Level Moderate and Lengthy

CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Paper Analysis 2024

  • As per the students, the Physical Education Question Paper difficulty level was easy.
  • Everything was based on the prescribed syllabus and NCERT. 
  • Sections A and B, which consisted of MCQs and very short-answer type questions, were easy to score. 
  • Sections D and E were comparatively lengthy. 
  • The language of the questions was direct in nature, which made it easy for the students to understand the demands of the questions. 

Overall, the CBSE Class 12 Physical Education paper was easy for almost all the students, and students are expecting good marks in the exam. 

CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Exam 2024: Student Reactions and Expert Opinion

Subject experts reviewed the CBSE Class 12 Physical Education paper and found it easy on the difficulty level. A detailed expert analysis can be checked below:

  • The subject teachers opined that the paper was easy on the difficulty level.
  • The paper pattern followed the format that was provided in the official sample paper of CBSE. 
  • Long-answer-type questions were simple but lengthy. 
  • Students who covered the syllabus in depth will be able to score good marks in the paper. 

CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2024 (Set 4)

The answers to all the questions of Section A are available for Class 12th students below. 

1. Which of the following pranayama is helpful to reduce obesity ?
(a) Kapalbhati Pranayama
(b) Anulom Vilom Pranayama
(c) Suryabhedan Pranayama
(d) Sitili Pranayama

Ans. (a) Kapalbhati Pranayama

2. International Paralympic Committee was formed in ______________ .
(a) 1985
(b) 2003
(c) 1989
(d) 2001

Ans. (c) 1989

3. Which of the following is NOT the cause of Food Intolerance ?
(a) Toxins formation due to food poisoning
(b) Absence of an enzyme
(c) Roughage
(d) Gluten

Ans. (a) Toxins formation due to food poisoning

4. Given below are two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) is the number of calories needed to maintain body function at resting condition.

Reason (R) : A person who does not engage in any work. still requires energy for the functioning of their internal organs.

In the context of the above two statements, which of the following option is correct ?

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A),
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) in false, but Reason (R) is true.

Ans. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A),

5. Given below are functions of Sports Management in List-I and their Explanation in List-II :

   List - 1                                                   List - II             

I. Planning                  1. It is a function of guiding, inspiring and instructing people to accomplish organizational goals.
II. Controlling             2. Preparing a layout for the future course of action.
III. Directing              3. Ensuring that proper talent is serving that specific job.
IV. Staffing                 
4. Establishing performance standards, measuring actual performance and comparing them for irregularities.

Match the items of List- I with List-II and choose the correct option from the following :

          I       II      III       IV
(a)     1       2       3          4
(b)     1       2       4          3
(c)     2       4       1          3
(d)     2       4       3         1

Ans. (c)     2       4       1        3

6. Given below are two statements labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In a normal standing posture, both knees touch each other, while there is a gap of 3-4 inches between the ankles.

Reason (R) : It occurs due to Genu Valgum and it can develop due to an injury or infection in the knee or leg, rickets, severe lack of vitamin D and calcium, obesity, or arthritis in the knee.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following option is correct ?


(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false,
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Ans. (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

7. In which of the following fitness component an athlete gives better performance, if he/she has more alow twitch fibre in comparison to fast twitch fibres.
(a) Speed
(b) Strength
(c) Endurance
(d) Flexibility

Ans. (c) Endurance

8. Identify the factor which decreases equilibrium.
(a) Larger base
(b) Greater weight
(c) Lower centre of gravity
(d) Higher centre of gravity

Ans. (c) Lower centre of gravity

9. Identify the characteristic of introvert personality.
(a) Meet unknown people easily
(b) Self-centered
(c) Highly socialized
(d) Expressive nature

Ans. (d) Expressive nature

10. Jump for smash in volleyball is an example of ____________ .
(a) Static strength
(b) Maximum strength
(c) Explosive strength
(d) Strength endurance

Ans. (c) Explosive strength

11. Which of the following is the objective of Intramural competition ?
(a) To achieve high performance
(b) To provide career opportunities
(c) To promote health and fitness
(d) To promote cultural and economic development

Ans. (c) To promote health and fitness

12. According to W.HO. (World Health Organisation) recommendations, children of _____________ should be engaged in physical activities for 180 minutes and should have 10-13 hours of good quality sleep per day.
(a) Less than 1 year
(b) 1-2 year
(c) 3-4 year
(d) 5-17 year

Ans. (b) 1-2 year

13. Identify the asana shown in the picture given below and choose the correct option from the following :



(a) Bhujangasana
(b) Katichakrasana
(c) Pawanmuktasana
(d) Shalbhasana

Ans. (a) Bhujangasana

14. Which is the main governing body responsible for the organization of Deaflympics ?
(a) World Deaf Champions Committee
(b) National Sports Federation
(c) International Co-ordinating Committee for Disabled Sports.
(d) International Committee of Sports for the Deaf

Ans. (d) International Committee of Sports for the Deaf

15. Body Mass Index is one of the common way of assessing healthy body weight. Which of the following BMI range is considered for healthy weight ?
(a) 25.0-29.0
(b) 30.0-34.9
(c) 18.5-24.9
(d) 35.0-39.9

Ans. (c) 18.5-24.9

16. In partial curl up test the difference between two parallel lines is ______________ .
(a) 8 inches
(b) 4 inches
(c) 6 inches
(d) 10 inches

Ans. (b) 4 inches

17. Goal setting is a _____________ approach, under motivational technique.
(a) Cognitive
(b) Pedagogical
(c) Social
(d) Facilitation

Ans. (a) Cognitive

18. Which functional fitness component of senior citizens is determined in the test shown below ?

(a) Physical Mobility
(b) Upper Body Flexibility
(c) Lower Body Flexibility
(d) Upper Body Strength

Ans. (c) Lower Body Flexibility

Section A: Multiple Choice Questions

Section A comprises 18 multiple-choice questions (Question 1 to Question 18) of 1 mark each, the answers to which are provided here in tabular format.

Question Number Answers
1 A
2 C
3 A
4 A
5 C
6  B
7 C
8 C
9 D
10 C
11 C
12 B
13 A
14 D
15 C
16
17 A
18 C

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