CBSE Class 12 Exam 2023 : Political Science Most Important 2 Mark Questions With Answers

In this article, we have compiled and presented the most important questions and answers of 2 marks for CBSE Class 12 Political Science Board Exams in the session 2022-23.

These important questions have been designed by the subject experts focusing on the latest changes in the syllabus, sample papers and previous year questions.

Book – 1 समकालीन विश्व राजनीति

Two Marker Questions

Q1. Give two objectives of the Non Aligned Movement as envisaged by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Ans. India to take a firm stand on international issues, to enable India to balance one Superpower against the other and have friendly relations with both.

Q2. Why was the Warsaw pact also called the Eastern Alliance?

Ans. The Warsaw pact was also called the Eastern Alliance due to the alliance of eastern European countries with the Soviet Union and most of them were situated in Eastern part of Europe.

Q3. What do you understand by the term Cold War ?

Ans. The cold war was an intense form of rivalry but it did not lead to an actual war of bloodshed and ‘face to face’ armed war.

Q4. What do you understand by the Non Aligned Movement ?

Ans. The Non Aligned Movement was formed during the cold war to keep distance from both the Superpowers supported military alliances.

Q5. Name the respective leader of the USA and USSR during the Cuban missile crisis.

Ans. John F. Kennedy and Nikita Khrushchev.

Q6. What were the two reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev?

Ans. Perestroika and Glasnost.

Q7. Name two Baltic states of the former Soviet Republics that joined NATO in 2004?

Ans. Estonia, Latvia.

Q8. What is the present number of members in NATO? (2020)

Ans. Presently there are 30 members in NATO

Q9. Choose the correct option : which of the following two were the members of Warsaw pact?

Bulgaria,
Romania,
Netherland

Ans. Bulgaria, Romania.

Q10. What was the largest ‘Garage Sale in the history of the world’ ?

Ans. The largest garage sale in history resulted due to the Shock Therapy in which valuable industries were sold at throwaway prices

Q11. When and where was the first business school opened?

Ans. In 1881 as the Wharton School at the University of Pennsylvania. M.B.A. The initial courses started in 1900.

Q12. What do you understand by hegemony?

Ans. The ability to influence or control the behavior of another so that he/she obeys everything is called domination.

Q13. On which issues did President Bill Clinton emphasize more during his tenure?

Ans. Emphasized soft issues like promotion of democracy, climate change and world trade.

Q14. Between which two sides was the first Gulf War fought?

Ans. Between Iraq and the forces of sub-countries directed by the US.

Q15. What do you understand by the incident of 9/11?

Ans. On September 11, 2001, 19 hijackers believed to be linked to Al Qaeda hijacked planes and crashed two into the World Trade Center in New York. This is called the 9/11 incident.

Q16. What do you think has changed in American thinking after the 9/11 incident?

Ans. Terrorism is considered as a worldwide phenomenon i.e. an international problem.

Q17. Highlight any two facts showing friendship between India and America.

Ans.

Civil nuclear deal between India and America.
Recognizing terrorism as a problem.

Q18. Today the global economy is dollarised. Comment

Ans.

The US dollar is the major currency of exchange in world trade.
The US ability to control world trade is indicated by the term dollarization.

Q19. What was the real objective of Operation Freedom’s invasion of Iraq?

Ans.

control of Iraq’s oil reserves.
Establishing a government of America’s choice in Iraq.

Q20. What steps were taken under Operation Enduring Freedom?

Ans.

- Al Qaeda and the Taliban were targeted.
- Suspects were arrested and placed in the “Guantanamo Way”.

Q21. What does the New Center of Power mean?

Ans. After the end of the bipolar structure of world politics in the early 1990 it became clear that regional organisations or countries of political and economic power could limit America’s dominance. These regional organisations or countries are called New Centers of Power.

Q22. What was Marshall Plan?

Ans. America extended massive financial help for reviving Europe’s economy after the Second World War. It is called thc Marshall plan.

Q23. What are the factors to make Russia a New Center of Power?

Ans.

Russia has reserves of minerals, natural resources and gases that make it Powerful country.
Rassia is a nuclear state and also a permanent member of the United Nations Security Council.

Q24. Give two reasons for establishing Israel as the New Centre of Power.

Ans. Israel has indomitable defence powers, technolo g ical innovation. industrialisation and agricultural development.

Q25. What are the key objectives of BRICS?

Ans. The BRICS mechanism aims to promote peace, security, development and cooperation. It also aims at contributing significantly to the development of humanity and establishing a more equitable and fair world.

Q26. What is ‘SouthAsia’?

Ans. The expression South Asia usually Includes the following countries: – Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepa1,Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Q27. Mention any two points of conflict between India and Bangladesh?

Ans.

The sharing of the Ganga and the Brahanaputra river waters
Bangladesh’s decision not to export natural gas to India.

Q28. List any two areas of conflict between India and Pakistan.

Ans. Two areas of conflict between India and Pakistan:-

Kashmir is a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan
Strategic issues like the control of the Siachen Glacier and over acquisition of arms.

Q29. Mention one field of conflict between Nepal and Bhutan as well as Bangladesh and Myanmar.

Ans.

One field of dispute between Nepal and Bhutan:- Migration of ethnic Nepalese into Bhutan
One field of dispute between Bangladesh and Myanmar:- Migration of people into Myanmar.

Q30. Identity the country that was first to liberalise its economy in the South Asian region.

Ans. Sri Lanka was the first country to liberalise its economy in the South Asian region.

Q31. What do you mean by VETO power?

Ans. The veto power is a negative vote to stall any decision by five permanent members of UN Security Council.

Q32. Hon many permanent member and non- permanent member in security council have?

Ans. 5 permanent member and 10 non- permanent member.

Q33. Write names of permanent members of Security Council.

Ans. USA,USSR(Russia),UK,FRANCE,CHINA.

Q34. Match the following.

24 October 1945	Atlantic charter
10 December 1948	Yalta conference
February 1945	UN established
August 1941	Human Rights Declare

Ans.

24 October 1945	(UN established)
10 December 1948	(Human Rights Declaration)
February 1945	(Yalta conference)
August 1941	(Atlantic charter)

Q35. What do you mean by mutual dependency?

Ans. Mutual dependence is need of collaborative partners for each other, reduced resources and environment uncertainities by using collaboration strategies.

Q36. What is meant by traditional security?

Ans. Traditional secuity involves attack from another country. It threatens the central values of a country like sovereignty: independence and territorial integrity etc.

Q37. Define cooperative security .

Ans. Strategy with international cooperation rather than military struggle to deal with unconventional threats

Q38. What is meant by an internally displaced people ? Explain with one example.

Ans. Individuds who leave their homes and live within the borders of their own country are called internally displaced people like Kashmiri Pandits from the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q39. What is the difference between immigrants and refugees?

Ans. Immigrants lease their homelands at will, while refugee were are forced to leave their country, due to natural disasters or due to other reasons.

Q40. What is meant by disarmament ?

Ans. Absence of weapons or destruction of weapons

Q41. What Is agenda 21?

Ans. A list of development practices was recommended at the Rio conference. It was called Agenda 21.

Q42. Mention any two consequences of Rio Summit.

Ans.

a) Global Warming emerged as a matter of concern.
b) The emphasis on sustainable development

Q43. What was the reason for exempting India and China from the obligations of Kyoto Protocol?

Ans. India and China did not contribute much to the emission of greenhouse gases.

Q44. What is the biggest threat to the existance of the Indigenous inhabitants?

Ans. The forests arc depleting and the number of wildlife animals are disappearing

Q45. Write any two reasons for the continuous reduction in the size of the world’s common Wealth.

Ans.

- a) Indiscriminate tapping
- b) Increasing population

Q46. Name two international institutions that play an important role in determining economic policies across the world.

Ans. International monetary fund World Trade organisation

Q47. Mention any one economic consequence of globalisation.

Ans. Globalisation has increased trade in commodities across the globe

Q48. What is the contribution of science and technology on globalisation.

Ans. The development of science and technology will result in cultural homogenisation and mutual interdependence.

Q49. What do you mean by McDonaldisation?

Ans. Domination of western cultureover the culture of other Nations.

Q50. ‘The concept of Globalisation fundamentally deals with flows’. Name them?

Ans. Flows – Ideas, Capital, Commodities, people

Book – 2 स्वतन्त्र भारत में राजनीति

Q1. What was two nation theory?

Ans. Theory of two separate nations one for Hindus(INDIA) and one for Muslims (Pakistan).

Q2. What was the Instrument of Accession?

Ans. A legal document signed by princely states to join with India.

Q3. Who was Maharaja BodhChandra Singh?

Ans. Maharaja of Manipur.

Q4. Who was the first Indian Governor General of independent India? Also, name the political party formed by him.

Ans. C Rajagopalachari, formed (Swatantra Party 1959).

Q5. What was the basis of the report of the States Reorganization Commission?

Ans. Accepted that the Boundaries of states boundaries of different languages.

Q6. When and where was the Communist Party’s government formed for the first time in the world on the basis of democratic elections?

Ans. In the 1957 Legislative Assembly elections in the Indian state of Kerala.

Q7. When was the Election Commission of India formed and who was made the first Election Commissioner?

Ans. January 1950, Sukumar Sen.

Q8. Which leader called the Congress party an inn and why?

Ans. Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, because the doors of the Congress were open to all sections of the society, at the time of the national movement, various classes and groups were merged in their party.

Q9. Describe the role of the opposition party in a democracy.

Ans.

criticism of government policies
curb the indifference of the government
political education to the masses

Q10. Which countries were dominated by one party?

Ans. Mexico, South Korea, Taiwan

Q11. What were the Swatantra Party against?

Ans. Agriculture was against land ceiling, co-operative farming and government control over trade in food grains.

Q12. What were the reasons for the split in the Communist Party in India?

Ans. At the time of Indo-China war of 1962, one faction of the party accepted the Chinese invasion as correct and one faction opposed it, resulting in split in CPI in 1964.

Q13. What do you mean by one party dominance?

Ans. The influence and supremacy of a political party on the political system of the country.

Q14. Name two states where the Congress was not in power during 1952 to 1967 and name any other state where the Congress ruled during this period.

Ans. Jammu Kashmir, Kerala and Punjab, Uttar Pradesh.

Q15. Explain the meaning of the statement “Politics is not the problem but the solution to the problem”.

Ans. Politics is the most appropriate medium for proper distribution of resources in the society. In this way, politics is not a problem, it presents a solution to the problem.

Q16. How was the dominance of the Congress party in the first three general elections helpful in establishing a democratic system in India?

Ans.

The nature of the dominance of the Congress party in India was different from the dominance of one party in countries like Cuba and China.
Despite the dominance of the Congress in the first three general elections, the voice of the opposition was not stifled, but respected.

Q17. What was the role of the opposition parties in the Lok Sabha and Vidhansabha in the 1950s?

Ans.

The opposition parties maintained the democratic character of the system of governance.
He made a theoretical criticism of the policies and practices of the Congress party.

Q18. Which member of Bharatiya Jana Sangh became a minister in Prime Minister Nehru’s first Council of Ministers? When and why did he resign?

Ans. Syama Prasad Mukherjee. He resigned in 1950 due to his differences over relations with Pakistan. He believed that “Akhand Bharat” should be made about India and Pakistan.

Q19. Mention any two important features of the ideology of the Indian Jansandh.

Ans.

It emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation.
It was opposed to the granting of concession to religious and cultural minorities.

Q20. When and why did the split in the Communist Party of India take place?

Ans. Happened in 1941. The Communist Party of India (CPI) fell victim to a split after the ideological differences between China and the Soviet Union. The supporters of Soviet ideology are called Communist Party of India and the supporters of Chinese ideology are called Communist Party of India (Marxist).

Q21. What was Kerala model of development?

Ans. The Kerala model of development is a combined effort and set of practices adopted by the government and the people of Kerala to achieve better productivity, low infant mortality rates, significantly lower population growth rates, increased life expectancy, better healthcare facilities. Although Kerala has a lower per capita income, still the state is compared to many developed nations and by adapting just radical improvement measures using lesser resources and lesser energy consuming methods.

Q22. Explain any two land reforms in India.

Ans. Major land reforms are-

The abolition of the economical system of Zamindari.
Consolidation of land by bringing small peices of land together in the one place.

Q23. Give any two objectivie of Niti Aayog.

Ans. Two objectives of NITI aayog-

To harmonise the internals of material security and economic policy and to prepare streategic and long term framework of policy and programme.
To cope up with pressing challenges of development in the 21st Century.

Q24. Give any two consequence of zoning.

Ans.

- No trade of foodgrains among states.
- Security of foods in the state of Bihar.

Q25. How Myanmar is important to India?

Ans.

Myanmar is significant in the context of our “Act East” policy. Myanmar is India’s gateway to South -East Asia.
Myanniar is potentially an important partner in the energy sector as future offshore gas can be piped to India.

Q26. Why does India refuse to sign NPT and CTBT?

Ans. India has opposed the NPT and CTBT since they were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five nuclear weapon powers.Thus, India opposed the indefinite extension of the NPT in 1995 and also refused to sign the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

Q27. Why did India sign a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the , Soviet Union?

Ans. In order to counter the US- Pakistan- China axis, India signed a twenty-year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the Soviet Union in August 1971. The treaty assured India of Soviet support if the country faced any attack.

Q28. Which river water treaty was signed between India and Pakistan? Who played the role of the mediator?

Ans. A long term dispute about the sharing of river waters was resolved through mediation by the World Bank.The India- Pakistan Indus Water Treaty was signed by Nehru and General Ayub Khan in 1960.

Q29. What was the Kargil conflict?

Ans. In 1999, several points of the Indian side of LOC in the Mashkoh,Dras,Kaksar and Batalik areas were occupied by Mujahideens. Indian Army suspected of Pakistan’s army. This led to confrontation between two countries, which is known as the Kargil conflict.

Q30. Why is the decade of 1960 called the dangerous decade?

Ans.

1962 India-China war,1965 India Pakistan war
Monsoon failure resulting in drought.

Q31. What do you mean by Defection?

Ans. Defection means an elected representative leaves the party on whose symbol he was elected and joins another Party.

Q32. Mention any two reasons for the winning of Congress -R in 1971 elections.

Ans.

Slogan of Garibi Hata
India’s victory in 1971 Indo Pak war

Q33. Define Syndicate.

Ans. A group of powerful and influential leaders fromwithin the Congress.

Q34. Name two countries where one party dominance is prevalent.

Ans. South Korea, Taiwan

Q35. Match the following

A	B
i). Decralation of Emergency	a) Jai Prakash Narayan
ii). Save Democracy	b) Charu Majumdar
iii). C.P.I (ML)	c) Janta Party
iv). Establishment of true democracy	d) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad

Ans. i) d, ii) c, iii) b, iv) a

Q36. What do you know about the second democratic upsurge?

Ans. Increasing participation of the people in the democratic politics of the country is broadly characterised as democratic upsurge. Based on this principle, social scientists have characterized three democratic upsurges in post-independence history of India.

Q37. Mention any two function of the ‘Naxalite Movement’.

Ans.

Snatch the land from rich and distribute to poor.
Use voilent means to achieve political aim.

Q38. Name two organisations which were banned during emergency.

Ans. RSS and Jamate-e-lslami.

Q39. What is objective of “Integral Humanism”.

Ans. To ensure dignified life for every human being while balancing the needs of the individual and society. It supported sustainable consumption of natural resources so that those resources can be replenished.

Q40. Distinguish between party- based movements and non-party based movements.

Ans. Party based movements are based on the ideology of political parties while non party based movements are Independent from party associations and are spontaneous and unorganised.

Q41. What were the main demands of the Chipko Movement?

Ans.

The villagers demanded that no forest exploiting contracts should be given to outsiders.
Local communities should have effective control over natural resources like water, land, and forests.
They also demanded the government to provide low-cost materials to small industries and ensure the development of the region without disturbing ecological balance.
This movement took up economic issues of landless forest workers and asked for guarantees of minimum wages.

Q42. What were the two issues related to the Sardar Sarovar project?

Ans. Leading activist Medha Patkar warns that Narmada River risks being turned into a lake due to various moves by the government. In addition, illegal sand mining in the catchment area of Sardar Sarovar dam is further increasing the risk of soil erosion, land degradation and habitat loss

Q43. What was the role of Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan in the enactment of Right to Information Act?

Ans. The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) was formed by a group of people in Rajasthan to demand information from the government. The MKSS demanded information to be made available to the public. They questioned the arbitrary decisions of the government and demanded access to documents.

Q44. Name the four countries with which the northeast share its boundaries.

Ans. China, Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bhutan

Q45. Majority of people of which religion are there in Kashmir and Ladakh?

Ans. Islam in Kashmir and buddhist in laddakh

Q46. When and where was the Operation Bluestar run?

Ans. June 1984, Golden Temple Amritsar

Q47. When was Punjab Agreement done and between whom?

Ans. July 1985: Akali chief Harchandsighlongowal and Rajiv Gandhi

Q48. When did Punjab split and what new states were created.

Ans. 1966: Haryana and Himachal Pradesh

Q49. What does a coalition government mean?

Ans. A Coalition government means that some polltical parties contest elections together by compromise or after concluding the results of the elections together by compromise, they form a government.

Q50. Which Was the main constituent party in the National Front? What was the main electoral issue of this alliance?

Ans. The Janata Dal was a major constituent party of the National Front government and contested elections on the issue of corruption and the issue of Bofors.

Q51. What led to the era of coalition governments at the center?

Ans.

Weakening of National Partics example: Congress,
Rise of regional parties

Q52. What was Shah Bano Case?

Ans. Shah Bano’s claim was premised under Section 123 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which stipulates that a man will have to provide for his wife during the marriage and after divorce if she cannot sustain herself financially on her own.

Q53. Write expansion of BAMCEF and establishment year.

Ans. Backward and Minority Classes Employees Federation, established in 1978.

CBSE Class 12 Study Materials

CBSE Class 12 Syllabus 2022-23	CBSE Class 12 Previous Year Papers
NCERT Books For Class 12 Books	NCERT Class 12 Solutions
CBSE Class 12 Full Study Material	CBSE Class 12 Sample Paper 2022-23