Political Science Mock Test - 5

The correct answer is India and USSR.

Key Points

• The Indo–Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was a treaty signed between India and the Soviet Union in August 1971 that specified mutual strategic cooperation. Hence Option 3 is correct answer.
• The Soviet Union, officially the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR), was a country that spanned much of Eurasia from 1922 to 1991
• This was a significant deviation from India's previous position of non-alignment during the Cold War and was a factor in the 1971 Indo-Pakistani war.
• The treaty was caused by increasing Pakistani ties with China and the United States and played an important role in the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War.
• The duration of the treaty was of 20 years and it was renewed for another 20 years on 8 August 1991.
• Following the dissolution of the Soviet Union it was replaced by a 20-year Treaty of Indo-Russian Friendship and Cooperation during President Yeltsin's visit to New Delhi in January 1993.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, otherwise commonly known as the Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an international treaty with an objective to limit the escalation of a nuclear arms race and the technology related to it. 
• The treaty was drawn, drafted and negotiated by the Eighteen Nation Committee on Disarmament, an UN-sponsored organisation based in Switzerland.
• Nuclear weapon states are not to transfer to any recipient whatsoever nuclear weapons and not to assist, encourage, or induce any NNWS to manufacture or otherwise acquire them.
• Non-nuclear weapons states are not to receive nuclear weapons from any transferor, and are not to manufacture or acquire them.
• NNWS must accept the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards on all nuclear materials on their territories or under their control.
• There are a total of nine nations that possess nuclear weapons.
• Five of the nations namely – US, UK, France, Russia and China have signed the treaty.
• The remaining four nations namely – India, Pakistan, Israel and North Korea have not signed the treaty and thus not a party to the treaty.
• India always considered the NPT as discriminatory and had refused to sign it. Hence the Option 2 is correct.
• India has opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation since they were selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimized the monopoly of the five nuclear weapons powers.

The correct answer is Lithuania.

Key Points

• Lithuania:
  • Officially the Republic of Lithuania is a country in the Baltic region of Europe.
  • It is one of three Baltic states and lies on the eastern shore of the Baltic Sea.
  • Lithuania was the first republic to break away from the Soviet Union, by proclaiming the restoration of its pre-war independence. 
  • On March 11, 1990, Lithuania declared that it was an independent nation, the first of the Soviet republics to do so. Hence Option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

• The Soviet Union (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, or USSR) was a socialist state that was created by Vladimir Lenin in 1922.
• During its existence, the USSR was the largest country in the world.
• The USSR collapsed in 1991 and left in its place 15 independent states that we know today:
  • Armenia- Armenia was officially proclaimed as an independent state on September 21, 1991.
  • Moldova- Soviet Moldova was created on August 2, 1940 from a region that was annexed from Romania known as Bessarabia and parts of an autonomous state within the Ukrainian SSR.
  • Estonia- On May 8, 1990, ESSR was renamed the Republic of Estonia and its independence was recognized by the USSR on September 6, 1991.
  • Latvia- It was fully recognized as an independent state on September 6, 1991 by the Soviet Union. 
  • Lithunia- The USSR acknowledged Lithuania as an independent state on September 6, 1991. 
  • Georgia- the territory declared its independence from the Soviet Union, and on November 14, 1990, it was renamed the Republic of Georgia.
  •  Azerbaijan - Azerbaijan SSR was renamed on November 19, 1990, as the Republic of Azerbaijan and remained in the Soviet Union until its full independence in 30 August 1991.
  • Tajikistan- It was recognized as an independent state by the Soviet Union on December 26, 1991.
  •  Kyrgyzstan- It attained full independence and on May 5, 1993, the name changed to the Kyrgyz Republic.
  •  Belarus- It  seeks independence and declare its sovereignty on July 27, 1990. 
  • Uzbekistan -It proclaimed itself a sovereign state on June 20, 1990 and declared its independence on August 31, 1991.
  • Turkmenistan- It  declared its independence from the Soviet Union which was recognized on December 26, 1991.
  • Ukraine- Following the dissolution of the Soviet Society, UkSSR was renamed as Ukraine and its new constitution was approved on June 28, 1996.
  • Kazakhstan-It was the last member of the Soviet Union's constituent republics to declare independence on 16 December 1991.
  • Russia  was one of the republics of the Soviet Union from its second occupation in 1921 to its independence in 12 December 1991.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• The Washington Consensus refers to a set of free-market economic policies. Hence Option 2 is correct.
• These policies are supported by prominent financial institutions such as the International Monetary Fund, the World Bank, and the U.S. Treasury.
• A British economist named John Williamson coined the term Washington Consensus in 1989.
• The ideas were intended to help developing countries that faced economic crises. 
• The Washington Consensus recommended structural reforms that increased the role of market forces in exchange for immediate financial help.
• Some examples include free-floating exchange rates and free trade.

Additional Information

• The Original Principles of The Washington Consensus :
  • Low government borrowing. The idea was to discourage developing economies from having high fiscal deficits relative to their GDP.
  • Diversion of public spending from subsidies to important long-term growth supporting sectors like primary education, primary healthcare, and infrastructure.
  • Implementing tax reform policies to broaden the tax base and adopt moderate marginal tax rates.
  • Selecting interest rates that are determined by the market. These interest rates should be positive after taking inflation into account (real interest rate).
  • Encouraging competitive exchange rates through freely-floating currency exchange.
  • Adoption of free trade policies. This would result in the liberalization of imports, removing trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas.
  • Relaxing rules on foreign direct investment.
  • The privatization of state enterprises. Typically, in developing countries, these industries include railway, oil, and gas.
  • The eradication of regulations and policies that restrict competition or add unnecessary barriers to entry.
  • Development of property rights.

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• The Geneva Conventions comprise of three protocols and four additional treaties that set the standards for ethical treatment in war.
• Geneva Convention is a comprehensive document addressing different aspects of the war. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• The Geneva Convention originated in 1864 but were given a major overhaul in 1949.
• Accordingly, the four Geneva conventions were adopted in 1949, with two additional protocols adopted in 1977 to supplement these conventions and the third protocol in 2005. The four conventions of 1949 are:
  • The First Convention: 
    • Convention for the Amelioration of the condition of the wounded and sick in Armed Forces in the field. 
    • It protects the soldiers who are hors de combat (Out of the battle).
  • The Second Convention:
    • Convention for the Amelioration of the condition of the wounded, sick, and shipwrecked members of armed forces at sea.
    • It is the same as the first convention but at sea.
    • It protects the wounded and sick combatants while on a ship or at sea.
  • The Third Convention:
    • Convention for the Treatment of Prisoners of War (PoWs).
    • It sets the rules that provide for humane treatment of the PoWs including their criminal trial.
  • The Fourth Convention:
    • Convention for the protection of Civilians during the time of war.
    • It includes citizens from the areas of occupied territories or armed conflicts.
• In addition to these, there are protocols that supplement the above four conventions.
  • Additional Protocol 1 of 1977 extends the protection for military and civilian medical workers as well as the civilian population in international armed conflicts.
    • It also provides for the establishment of a fact-finding commission for alleged non-compliances.
  • Additional Protocol 2 of 1977 extends the protection to the victims involved in non-international conflicts.
    • It does not apply to riots & conflicts that are internal in nature.
    • It prohibits torture, taking of hostages, rape, & any other form that outrage personal dignity.
  • Additional Protocol 3 of 2005 relates to the adoption of an additional distinctive emblem: the red crystal.

The correct answer is Taliban.

Key Points

• Taliban
  • The Taliban, which also refers to itself by the name of its state, the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan, is a Deobandi Islamic fundamentalist, militant Islamist, and jihadist political movement in Afghanistan.
  • It ruled approximately three-quarters of the country from 1996–2001, before being overthrown following the United States invasion.
  • It recaptured Kabul on 15 August 2021 after years of insurgency, and currently controls all of the country.
  • The Islamic force called the Taliban was founded in southern Afghanistan.
  • Mullah Mohammad Omar was the founder of the group.
  • He was a member of the Pashtun tribe who became a mujahideen commander.
  • He helped in pushing Soviets out of the country in 1989.
  • Later in 1994, Mullah Omar formed the group in Kandahar comprising of 50 followers.
  • They captured Kandahar & seized Kabul in 1996 and imposed strict Islamic rules. Hence Option 2 is correct.
  • These rules banned television & music, stopped girls from going to school, and forced women to wear burqas.

The correct answer is Myanmar.

Key Points

• Rohingya
  • Rohingya are an ethnic group, largely comprising Muslims, who predominantly live in the Western Myanmar province of Rakhine. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • They speak a dialect of Bengali, as opposed to the commonly spoken Burmese language.
  • Though they have been living in the South East Asian country for generations, Myanmar considers them as persons who migrated to their land during the Colonial rule.
  • So, it has not granted Rohingyas full citizenship.
  • According to the 1982 Burmese citizenship law, a Rohingya (or any ethnic minority) is eligible for citizenship only if he/she provides proof that his/her ancestors have lived in the country prior to 1823.
  • Else, they are classified as “resident foreigners” or as associate citizens (even if one of the parent is a Myanmar citizen).
  • Since they are not citizens, they are not entitled to be part of civil service.
  • Their movements are also restricted within the Rakhine state.
  • The government of Myanmar, a predominantly Buddhist country, denies the Rohingya citizenship and even excluded them from the 2014 census, refusing to recognize them as a people.
  • It sees them as illegal immigrants from Bangladesh.
  • In August 2017, a deadly crackdown by Myanmar’s army on Rohingya Muslims sent hundreds of thousands fleeing across the border into Bangladesh.
  • They risked everything to escape by sea or on foot a military offensive which the United Nations later described as a textbook example of ethnic cleansing.
  • But the army in Myanmar (formerly Burma) has said it was fighting Rohingya militants and denies targeting civilians.
  • The country’s leader Aung San Suu Kyi, once a human rights icon, has repeatedly denied allegations of genocide.

The correct answer is China.

Key Points

• China and Taiwan separated amid civil war in 1949 and China considers Taiwan part of its territory to be taken control of by force if necessary. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• But Taiwan's leaders say that Taiwan is a sovereign state.
• After decades of hostile intentions and angry rhetoric, relations between China and Taiwan started improving in the 1980s.
• China put forward a formula, known as "one country, two systems", under which Taiwan would be given significant autonomy if it accepted Chinese reunification.
• In Taiwan, the offer was rejected, but the government did relax rules on visits to and investment in China.
• There were also limited talks between the two sides' unofficial representatives, though Beijing's insistence that Taiwan's Republic of China (ROC) government is illegitimate prevented government-to-government contact.
• China's implementation of a national security law in Hong Kong in 2020 was seen by many as yet another sign that Beijing was becoming significantly more assertive in the region.
• One China Policy Challenged-This means that countries seeking diplomatic relations with the People's Republic of China (PRC, Mainland China) must break official relations with the Republic of China (ROC, Taiwan) and vice versa.
• India’s Stand on the Issue:
  • Since 1949, India has accepted the “One China” policy that accepts Taiwan and Tibet as part of China.
  • However, India uses the policy to make a diplomatic point, i.e., if India believes in “One China” policy, China should also believe in a “One India” policy.
  • Even though India has stopped mentioning its adherence to One China policy in joint statements and official documents since 2010, its engagement with Taiwan is still restricted due to the framework of ties with China.

The correct answer is Pakistan.

Key Points

• The G20 works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.
• The G20 is composed of most of the world's largest economies, including both industrialized and developing nations, and accounts for around 90% of gross world product (GWP), 75–80% of international trade, two-thirds of the global population, and roughly half the world's land area.
• The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union (EU).
• The members of the G20 are Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, the United States, and the European Union.

Additional Information

• The G20 was founded on 26 September 1999.
• The first G20 summit was held in Washington DC (USA) in 2008.
• The 16  gG0 summit venue - Rome (Italy) 2021.
• The 17  gG0 summit venue - Indonesia (Bali) 2022.
• The 18 G20 summit venue - India (New Delhi) 2023.
• Joko Widodo (President of Indonesia) is the Chairman of the G20 Summit.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• The Silk Road Economic Belt is the ‘Belt’ part of the One Belt One Road initiative (also known as the BRI).
• It is part of an ambitious plan by the Chinese government to promote infrastructural development and connectivity and stimulate economic integration across the Eurasian region. 
• The Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) is an effort to improve regional cooperation and connectivity on a transcontinental scale.Hence Option 3 is correct.
• The initiative aims to strengthen infrastructure, trade, and investment links.
• The objectives of the Silk Road Economic Belt are in sync with its parent initiative, One Belt One Road.
• They are as follows:
  • To create a cohesive economic zone by building hard infrastructures, such as rail and road links, and creating soft infrastructures in the form of signing a trade agreement
  • To strengthen cross-cultural exchanges and mutual understanding between nations that are part of the BRI initiative
  • This strategy is also in line with pushing export of Chinese technologies in new markets, as well as increasing the production capacity in industries such as electronics, construction and logistics. 
• India is not opposed to infrastructure development in the region, but it is concerned about the strategic implications of certain Chinese-led initiatives.
• At the very least, this will mark a new phase in the India-China relations.

The correct answer is Option 4.
Key Points

• According to WHO, globalization can be defined as the increased interconnectedness and interdependence of peoples and countries.
• It is generally understood to include two interrelated elements: the opening of international borders to increasingly fast flows of goods, services, finance, people, and ideas; and the changes in institutions and policies at national and international levels that facilitate or promote such flows.”
• Globalization is a free movement or exchange  of goods, services, people, capital, and information across national boundaries. Hence Option 4 is correct.
• It  is a process by which an activity or undertaking becomes worldwide in scope. 
• It  is a process of integration of the world as one market.
• It is a multi-dimensional process. It has four important dimensions: economic, cultural, political, and environmental. T
• he process of globalization is now influencing these aspects of an economy.
• It is a process where people, companies, and governments from different nations interact and integrate through international trade and investments has effects on the environment, culture, political systems, economic development and on the human physical well-being in societies around the world”.

Key Points

• The agricultural situation went from bad to worse in the 1960s. Already, the rate of growth of food grain production in the 1940s and 1950s was barely staying above the rate of population growth.
• Between 1965 and 1967, severe droughts occurred in many parts of the country. This was also the period when the country faced two wars and foreign exchange crisis. All this resulted in a severe food shortage and famine-like conditions in many parts of the country. 
• It was in Bihar that the food crisis was most acutely felt as the state faced a near-famine situation. The food shortage was significant in all districts of Bihar, with 9 districts producing less than half of their normal output.
• Five of these districts, in fact, produced less than one-third of what they produced normally. Food deprivation subsequently led to acute and widespread malnutrition. It was estimated that the calorie intake dropped from 2200 per capita per day to as low as 1200 in many regions of the state (as against the requirement of 2450 per day for the average person).
• The death rate in Bihar in 1967 was 34% higher than the number of deaths that occurred in the following year. Food prices also hit a high in Bihar during the year, even when compared with other north Indian states. For wheat and rice, the prices in the state were twice or more than their prices in more prosperous Punjab.
• The government had “zoning” policies that prohibited the trade of food across states; this reduced the availability of food in Bihar dramatically. In situations such as this, the poorest sections of society suffered the most. Hence statement 1 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Syndicate was the informal name given to a group of powerful and influential leaders who were in control of the party's organisation. Hence Option 4 is correct.
• This was led by Congress President K. Kamraj and included powerful state leaders like S.K. Patil, S. Nijalingappa, N. Sanjeeva Reddy and Atulya Ghosh.
• Their role in the Congress party was significant.
• Both Lai Bahadur Shastri and later Indira Gandhi owed their position to the support received from the syndicate.
• The group had a decisive say in Indira Gandhi’s first Council of Ministers and also in policy formulation and implementation.

The correct answer is Gaya Lal.

Key Points

• Aaya Ram Gaya Ram expression in politics of India means the frequent floor-crossing, turncoating, switching parties and political horse trading in the legislature by the elected politicians and political parties.
• The story dates back to 1967 when the first-ever Assembly Elections were held in Haryana.
• An independent politician named Gaya Lal was elected MLA in the elections.
  • Haryana had an 81-member legislative assembly then.
  • Gaya Lal was elected from the Hassanpur assembly seat. 
• Within hours of being elected, Gaya Lal joined the Indian National Congress.
  • A few hours later Gaya Lal joined the United Front coalition but it did not end there.
  • By the evening Gaya Lal had rejoined the Congress Party.
  • In 9 hours, Gaya Lal had switched parties thrice. 
  • In the evening, Congress leader Rao Birender Singh addressed a press conference in Chandigarh with Gaya Lal by his side.
• Birender Singh told media, "Gaya Ram ab Aaya Ram hai." Hence Option 2 is correct.
  • The phrase "Gaya Ram Aaya Ram" was picked by the media after Rao Birender Singh's famous one-liner.
  • Till date, it is used in Indian politics for leaders who jump ship frequently. 

The correct answer is Jayaprakash Narayan

Key Points

• The Bihar Movement was a political movement initiated by students in the Indian state of Bihar in 1974 and led by the veteran Gandhian socialist Jayaprakash Narayan. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• It later turned against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi's government in the central government.
• It was also called Sampoorna Kranti (Total Revolution Movement) and JP Movement.
• The Bihar Movement turned into a Satyagraha and volunteers kept protesting at the Bihar Legislative Assembly, inviting arrest starting on 4 December. 
• Indira Gandhi did not change the Chief Minister of Bihar, Abdul Ghafoor, because she did not want to give in to protestors' calls for the dissolution of the assembly as she did in Gujarat.
• She imposed a nationwide Emergency to safeguard her position on the night of 25 June 1975.
• After Indira Gandhi revoked the Emergency on 21 March 1977 and announced elections, it was under JP's guidance that the Janata Party (a vehicle for the broad spectrum of the anti-Indira Gandhi opposition) was formed.
• The Janata Party was voted into power, and became the first non-Congress party to form a government at the Centre in India.
• In Bihar, after the Janata Party came to power, Karpuri Thakur won the chief ministership battle from the then Bihar Janata Party President Satyendra Narayan Sinha to become the Bihar Chief Minister in 1977.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• 1974 railway strike in India was a major strike by the workers of Indian Railways in 1974.
• The strike lasted from 8 to 27 May 1974.
•  The 20 day strike by 1.7 million (17 lakh) workers is the largest recorded industrial action in the world.
• The strike was held to demand an eight-hour working day for locomotive staff by All India Railway Mens federation and a raise in pay scale, which had remained stagnant over many years. Hence Option 2 is correct.
• The spread of diesel engines and the consequent intensification of work in the Indian Railways since the 1960s resulted in continuous working hours being extended by days, creating much resentment among the workers
• The eight hour work day had not been implemented in Indian railways by the Railway Board, a quasi government bureaucracy despite having become a free country in 1947, this had led to dissatisfaction among labour, especially locomotive Pilots.
• When the crafts unions raised the issue, they demanded a 12-hour working day for loco running staff.
• This led to railway strikes by rail workers across the country in 1967, 1968, 1970 and 1973, finally leading to the 1974 strike which was participated in by 70% of the permanent work force of railways. 

The correct answer is 1947–48 War.

Key Points

• The Kabali Invasion-
  •  On 22nd October, the tribesmen from Pakistan, storm into Kashmir, and integrate with Poonch Rebels as an umbrageous reaction against the killings of Muslims in Jammu and Poonch.
  • The Kabali tribe is supported by unofficial people and leaders from Pakistan.
  • However, the tribes also engage in plundering and despoil along the way, resulting in exodus of over 10,000 Muslims.
  • India accuses Pakistan for violating the ‘Standstill Agreement'. Pakistan rebuts the allegations.
  • The revolt flares up neighboring Mirpur and Muzaffarabad.
  • ‘Azaad Kashmir' comes into existence with an independent government on 24th October, 1947.
• The 1947–48 War (October 21, 1947 – December 31, 1948)
  • The first war between India and Pakistan also called the First Kashmir War arose over Kashmir, in NW India, in 1947 when Muslim subjects revolted and were supported by Pakistani troops (Kabali Tribe). Hence oPtion 1 is correct.
  • The Hindu ruler appealed to India for aid, agreeing to cede the state to India in return. India moved quickly to consolidate its position in Kashmir, pushing Pakistan’s “volunteers” back.
  • Conflicts also arose in the Punjab and in Bengal.
  • The undeclared war in Kashmir continued until Jan. 1, 1949, when a truce was arranged through UN mediation; negotiations between India and Pakistan began and lasted until 1954 without resolving the Kashmir problem.
  • Pakistan controlled part of the area, Azad (Free) Kashmir, while India held most of the territory, which it annexed in 1957.
  • The war ended in December 31, 1948 with the Line of Control dividing the erstwhile princely state into territories administered by Pakistan (northern and western areas) and India.

Additional Information

•  The second war began in Apr., 1965, when fighting broke out in the Rann of Kachchh, a sparsely inhabited region along the West Pakistan–India border.
• The Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 was a major military conflict between India and Pakistan.
  • ​ This war is closely associated with the Bangladesh Liberation War. 
• The Kargil War, also known as the Kargil conflict, was an armed conflict between India and Pakistan that took place between May and July 1999 in the Kargil district of Kashmir.

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

• Paattali Makkal Katchi is a political party in Tamil Nadu, India, founded by S. Ramadoss in 1989 for the Vanniyars, a caste in northern Tamil Nadu. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• It is currently part of the National Democratic Alliance (NDA).
• The Election Symbol of the Pattali Makkal Katchi, as approved by the Election Commission of India, is the “Mango”. 
• It emerged from the Vanniyar reservation protests.
• Pattali Makkal Katchi, popularly called PMK, is a regional political party of India as approved by the Election Commission. 
• It operates on the political ideologies of Social Democracy and Populism.
• Its regional appeal lies in the fact that it caters to the interests of the common man in Tamil Nadu, especially the poor sections of the population such as peasants, workers and the middle-class in general.
• The party’s ideology of Social Democracy, attempts to build a vast consensus among the people through its mass base, resting on populist measures and appeals.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Punjab accord is also known as the Rajiv-Longowal Accord.
• The Rajiv–Longowal Accord, was an accord signed by then Prime Minister of India Rajiv Gandhi and Akali leader of Punjab Harchand Singh Longowal on 24 July 1985. Hence Option 2 is correct.
• The government accepted the demands of Shiromani Akali Dal who in turn agreed to withdraw their agitation.
• The accord attracted opposition from several orthodox Sikh leaders of Punjab as well as from the politicians of Haryana.
• Some of its promises could not be fulfilled due to the disagreements.
• Harchand Singh Longowal was assassinated by the Sikh militants opposed to the accord.
• The following were the provisions of the accord:
  • Compensation to the families of the innocent persons killed in agitation or any action after 1 August 1982. Plus, compensation for property damaged.
  • Merit will remain the sole criteria for selection in the Indian Army. All the citizens have the right to enroll in the Army.
  • Jurisdiction of Rangnath Mishra Commission enquiring into the 1984 Delhi riots will be extended to Bokaro and Kanpur.
  • Those discharged from the Army for desertion will be rehabilitated and provided employment.
  • All-India Gurdwara Act for structured governance of the Sikh shrines in India
  • Notifications applying AFSPA in Punjab will be withdrawn, and the special courts will try only the cases relating to following offences: Waging War  and Hijacking.
  • Chandigarh will be given to Punjab, overruling the Shah Commission's suggestion that it should be given to Haryana. 
  • The part of the Anandpur Sahib Resolution dealing with the Centre-State relations will be referred to the Sarkaria commission.
  • Punjab, Haryana and other states will continue to get their existing share of water (or more) from the Ravi-Beas system. 
  • The Prime Minister will re-instruct the Chief Ministers of the various states to protect the interests of the minorities.
  • The Central Government may take steps to promote the Punjabi language.

The correct answer is Sharad Anantrao Joshi. 

Key Points

• Shetkari Sanghatana, also known as farmers’ Organisation, was founded by Sharad Anantrao Joshi. Hence Option 2 is correct.
• The organisation was for farmers with aim of ‘freedom of access to markets and technology’ and ‘remunerative agricultural prices’.
• The movement gathered momentum in 1973, following a lengthy gap period of 28 years since 1945.
• Sharad Joshi, an economist by training, worked for the United Nations in Switzerland. After returning to the country, he purchased land and became a full-time farmer.
• In 1979, he led a group of farmers to block the Pune-Nashik highway to press for higher prices for onion.
• The genesis of the Shetkari Sanghatana lies in this movement, which saw onion growers dumping their produce on the highway to underline their demand.
• Joshi believed that unless the problems of rural India were raised forcefully in urban India, farmers would never receive justice.
• His agitations were, therefore, invariably staged in the urban areas, and were calculated to impact urban life.
• Protesters often gathered on highways or railway tracks to press for better prices of sugarcane, or the removal of state monopoly in the procurement of cotton.
• The Shetkari Sanghatana has been vocal about getting access to the market.
• Joshi was convinced that the root cause of farmers’ problems lay in their limited access to the market. 
• The Sanghatana hit the street to demand removal of zone limits on sugarcane farmers, or the ban on inter-state movement of cotton. 
• The Sanghatana was one of the first bodies to come out in support of the farm reforms announced by the central government.
• Of the three new laws, The Farmers Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020 received the most support from the union.
• From 1993, the Sanghatana, which was an informal organisation with no constitution or formal members, began splitting into various factions.
• People like Jawandhia, Chandrakant Wankhede, Raju Shetty, Sadabhau Khot and Gajanan Ahmedabadkar walked out of the Sanghatana. 

The correct answer is option 3 i.e P.V. Narasimha Rao

• Look East Policy was started by P.V. Narasimha Rao in 1991.
• It was an effort to cultivate extensive economic and strategic relations with the nations of Southeast Asia.
• Look East Policy now turned into Act East by Narendra Modi.
• Although it was developed and enacted by P.V. Narasimha Rao and rigorously pursued by the successive administrations of Atal Bihari Vajpayee(1999-2004) and Manmohan Singh(2004-14).

The correct answer is 5.

• There are 5 permanent members are in BRICS.

Key Points

• BRICS:
  • The full form of  BRICS is Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. 
  • Initially, in 2009 there were only four countries. (BRIC)
  • South Africa joined in 2010.
  • It is associated with five emerging economies of the world that have a significant influence on regional affairs.
  • It was formed in 2009 and since then the governments of these 5 countries met annually at formal summits.
  • For the year 2020, Russia hosted the 12th BRICS summit.
  • In 2021, India hosted the 13th BRICS summit.
  • The headquarters of the BRICS is in Shanghai.

The correct answer is the Philippines.

• The Philippines is the headquarters of the Asian Development Bank (ADB).

​Key Points

• Asian Development Bank(ADB) is a regional development bank.
• It has 68 members for now.
• ADB resembles closely with World Bank, it has a similar voting system where votes are distributed in proportion with members' capital subscriptions.
• The Asian Development Bank is a regional development bank established on 19 December 1966, which is headquartered in the Ortigas Center located in the city of Mandaluyong, Metro Manila, Philippines.
• The company also maintains 31 field offices around the world to promote social and economic development in Asia. 
• The current President of ADB is Mr. Masatsugu Asakawa (As of Oct 2021).

Additional Information

• The secretariat of International Solar Alliance is located in India.
• It is headquartered in Gurgaon, Haryana.
• The alliance was initiated in India and comprises of more than 122 countries.
• Its objective is to work towards efficiently exploiting solar energy in order to reduce the usage of fossil fuels.

The correct answer is option 4  i.e Agni-VI.

• Agni-VI is an intercontinental ballistic missile being developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation, in India.
  • The government of India is yet to approve the Agni VI project.
  • It is to be the latest and most advanced version among the Agni missiles.
• Agni-I is a short-range ballistic missile developed by DRDO in India.
  • The operational range is 700–1,200 km.
• Agni-II is the second strategic ballistic missile of the Agni (missile) family.
  • It is the Medium Range Ballistic Missile.
  • Designed by Defence Research and Development Organisation.
• Agni-IV is an Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile.
  • Earlier known as Agni II prime.
  • Developed by DRDO, India.

The correct answer is Geneva, Switzerland.

Key Points

• The United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) is a United Nations agency mandated to support and protect refugees, displaced populations, and stateless people and to assist in their voluntary repatriation, local integration, or relocation to a third country.
• UNHCR was set up in 1950 to resolve the refugee crisis that occurred as a result of World War II.
• The 1951 Refugee Convention defined the scope and legal basis of the Agency's work, which initially centred on the war-torn Europeans.
• In recognition of its service, the UNHCR was awarded two Nobel Peace Prizes in 1954 and 1981 and the Prince of Asturias Awards for International Cooperation in 1991.
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
• Current High Commissioner for Refugees: Filippo Grandi
• First High Commissioner: Gerrit Jan van Heuven Goedhart

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Sana.

Key Points

• An airstrike on Yemen's capital, Sanaa, was carried out by a Saudi-led military alliance.
• Prior to the attack, Saudi Arabia intercepted ten Houthi drones.
• Sanaa or Sana city is Yemen's largest city and the administrative center of the Sanaa Governorate.
• The city is not part of the Governorate but is part of the "Amanat Al-Asemah" administrative district. Sanaa is the country's capital, according to the Yemeni constitution, but the Yemeni government's seat was relocated to Aden, the former capital of South Yemen, following the Houthi occupation.
• President Abdrabbuh Mansur Hadi declared Aden the interim capital in March 2015.

 Important Points

• Yemen is a country in Western Asia at the southern end of the Arabian Peninsula.
• It is the peninsula's second-largest Arab sovereign state, covering 527,970 square kilometers.

Additional Information

The Correct Answer is Option 4 i.e Convention on Biological Diversity.

• Convention on Biological Diversity:
  • It is a legally binding agreement for the conservation of biological diversity.
  • It is an outcome of the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 and entered into force in 1993.
• Ramsar Convention:
  • It is a convention on Wetlands of International Importance.
  • It was signed in 1971 at Ramsar in Iran.
  • It is not a legally binding agreement.
• Vienna Convention:
  • It is a convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer and was signed in 1985.
• Kyoto Protocol:
  • It is an international agreement that mandated at cutting greenhouse gas emissions and was signed in 1997.

Combating HIV/AIDS, Malaria and Other Diseases forms part of the Millennium Development Goals.

There are 17 Sustainable Development Goals, associated 169 targets and 304 indicators.This included the following goals:

1. End poverty in all its forms everywhere

2. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture

3. Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages

4. Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all

5. Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls

6. Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all

7. Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for all

8. Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable economic growth, full and productive employment and decent work for all

9. Build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization and foster innovation

10. Reduce inequality within and among countries

11. Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable

12. Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns

13. Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts

14. Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources for sustainable development

15. Protect, restore and promote sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, and halt and reverse land degradation and halt biodiversity loss

16. Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for sustainable development, provide access to justice for all and build effective, accountable and inclusive institutions at all levels

17. Strengthen the means of implementation and revitalize the global partnership for sustainable development

The correct answer is World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

Key Points

• TRAFFIC - 
  • It was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions based on the latest information.
  • It is a joint program of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
    • Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC's partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
  • A central aim of TRAFFIC's activities is to contribute to the wildlife trade-related priorities of these partners. 
  • TRAFFIC also works in close cooperation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
  • TRAFFIC became an independent non-profit organization in 2017, with WWF and IUCN sitting on its Board of Directors along with independent Board members.
  • TRAFFIC is renowned globally for its expertise and influence in the wildlife trade and conservation arena, as a provider of objective and reliable information.

Additional Information

• Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) - 
  • It is an international agreement between governments.
  • Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
  • CITES was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation Union).
  • The text of the Convention was finally agreed at a meeting of representatives of 80 countries in Washington, D.C., United States of America, on 3 March 1973, and on 1 July 1975 CITES entered in force.

The correct answer is Marrakesh Agreement.

Key Points

• World Trade Organisation (WTO)
  • The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 124 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • WTO is an international organization whose primary purpose is to open trade for the benefit of all.
  • GATT was established in 1948 with 23 countries as the global trade organization to administer all multilateral trade agreements by providing equal opportunities to all countries in the international market for trading purposes.
  • WTO is expected to establish a rule-based trading regime
  • in which nations cannot place arbitrary restrictions on trade. In addition, its purpose is also to enlarge production and trade of services, to ensure optimum utilization of world resources, and to protect the environment.
  • The WTO agreements cover trade in goods as well as services to facilitate international trade (bilateral and multilateral) through the removal of the tariff as well as non-tariff barriers and providing greater market access to all member countries.

Additional Information

• Bretton woods Agreement
  • The Bretton Woods system of monetary management established the rules for commercial and financial relations among the United States, Canada, Western European countries, Australia, and Japan after the 1944 Bretton Woods Agreement.
• The Washington Agreement
  • It was a ceasefire agreement between the Republic of Bosnia and Herzegovina and the Croatian Republic of Herzeg-Bosnia, signed in Washington, D.C. on 18 March 1994 and Vienna. 
• The Paris Agreement
  • Often referred to as the Paris Accords or the Paris Climate Accords, is an international treaty on climate change, adopted in 2015.
  • It covers climate change mitigation, adaptation, and finance.

Praja Socialist Party was not founded by N. G. Ranga.

• The Praja Socialist Party was an Indian Political party.
• It was founded in Septembr 1952 by Jaya Prakash Narayan.
• It was founded when the Socialist party led by Jaya Prakash Narayan with some others was merged with the Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party led by J.B. Kriplani.
• It was dissolved in 1972 and succeeded by Samyukta Socialist Party.

Additional Information

• Jan Sangh was founded by Shyama Prasad Mukherjee that existed from 1951 to 1977.
• The Independent Labour Party was formed on 15th August 1936 by B. R. Ambedkar.
• Congress Socialist Party was founded by Jai Prakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia, and Acharya Narendra Deva in1934.

The correct answer is A. K. Gopalan, S.A. Dange, P. C. Joshi.

Key Points

• Communist Party of India:-
  • The communist party of India was launched in Tashkent in October 1920.
  • But this was only the primitive work done.
  • For the next five years, various Communist groups were launched in various parts of India. It was in December 1925, when Satyabhakta organized these small organizations into one All India Conference of the Communists at Kanpur.
  • The present of the All India Conference of Communists was Singarvelu Chettiar from the Madras Province.
  • This conference is known as the “formal” beginning of the communist party of India in 1925, from Kanpur.
  • S.V. Ghate became general secretary of CPI.
  • Leaders involved:-
    • A. K. Gopalan, P. Sundarayya, P. C. Joshi, M. Basavapunnaiah, Jyoti Basu, B. T. Ranadive, S. A. Dange, Achuta Menon, M. N. Govindan Nair, Raj Sekhar Reddy, etc.
• Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya, Balraj Madhok are associated with Bharatiya Jan Sangh.
• C. Rajagopalachari, K.M.Munshi, N.G.Ranga are associated with Swatantra Party.
• C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and VeeresalingamPantulu are associated with Indian National Congress.

The correct answer is Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar.

Key Points

• GV Mavalankar was conferred the title of 'Father of the Lok Sabha' by JL Nehru.
• GV Mavalankar was the first speaker of Lok Sabha.
• He was popularly known as Dadasaheb.
• Mavalankar was the founder-Chairman of the National Rifle Association as also of the Institute for Afro-Asian Relations.
• Books written by him are-
  • Manavatana Jharna
  • Sansmarano
  • My life at the Bar

Hint

• Mahatma Gandhi was not alive at the time of the first Lok sabha and it is not rational as JL Nehru calls himself as 'father of the Lok Sabha'. Hence options 2 and 4 are eliminated.
• If left with options 1 and 3, further it is a known fact that GV Mavalnkar was the first speaker of LS, based on this fact we can guess option 1. 

Important Points

Some of the major first ones in Lok Sabha are as follows- 

• The First Session of this Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952.
• MA Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha.
• AK Gopalan was the first Leader of Opposition in the elected Lok Sabha.
• Meira Kumar was the first female speaker of Lok Sahba and remained in office from 2009 to 2014.
• John Mathai presented the first budget in the elected Lok Sabha of Independent India.

The correct answer is Nationalist and Secular.

• From 1906 to 1920, the role of Md. Ali Jinnah during the freedom struggle of India was Nationalist and secular.
• Secularism the principle seeking to conduct human affairs based on secular, naturalistic considerations.
• Political philosophies like communism, capitalism, socialism, etc.- their forms and effect on the society; Social empowerment, communalism, regionalism & secularism

Key Points

• Mohammed Ali Jinnah was born on 25 December 1876 in Karachi, now in Pakistan, but then part of British-controlled India.
• Jinnah was an Indian politician who successfully campaigned for an independent Pakistan and became its first leader.
• He is known there as Quaid-I Azam or Great Leader.
• Muhammad Ali Jinnah was a barrister, politician, and founder of Pakistan.
• Jinnah served as the leader of the All-India Muslim League from 1913 until the inception of Pakistan on 14 August 1947, and then as the Dominion of Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death.

Additional Information

•  Mohammed Ali Jinnah's famous books are:

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

• Nathuram Vinayak Godse (19 May 1910 – 15 November 1949) was an advocate of Hindu nationalism who assassinated Mahatma Gandhi, shooting him in the chest three times at point blank range in New Delhi on 30 January 1948.

The correct answer is option (2) i.e. Kashmir.

• The instrument of Accession was an accession treaty i.e the state will come under the Dominion of India.
• Maharaja Hari Singh ruler of Jammu and Kashmir in 26th October 1947 agreed to accede to the Dominion of India. 
• Md. Mahabat Khanji III was the last ruler of Junagarh when Junagarh integrated with India.
• Mir Osman Ali Khan was the last Nizam of Hyderabad.
• The term "Police action " is related to the Hyderabad state.

The correct answer is the 1966 - 69 period.

Key Points

• There were three annual plans between 1966 and 1969.
  • This period was also called 'plan holiday'.
  •  Plan Holidays' main reason was later deducted as war (Indo-Pakistan), inflation, and severe drought.
  • In a bid to increase the exports in the country, the government declared devaluation of the rupee.
  • The Fourth Five-Year Plan was introduced only in 1969.
  • During these plans, a whole new agricultural strategy was implemented.
  • It involves the widespread distribution of high yielding varieties of seeds, extensive use of fertilizers, exploitation of irrigation potential, and soil conservation.

The correct answer is Chaudhary Charan Singh.

Key Points

• Chaudhary Charan Singh (23 December 1902 – 29 May 1987) served as the 5th Prime Minister of India between 28 July 1979 and 14 January 1980.
• Historians and people alike frequently refer to him as the 'champion of India's peasants.'
• Charan Singh was born on 23 December 1902 in a rural peasant Jat family and Tevatia clan of village Noorpur, District Hapur (Erstwhile District Meerut), Uttar Pradesh (Erstwhile United Provinces of Agra and Oudh).
• Charan Singh entered politics as part of the Independence Movement motivated by Mohandas Gandhi.

Additional Information

• First Prime Minister of India - Jawahar Lal Nehru
• 1st woman prime minister of India - Indira Gandhi
• 1st woman prime minister of the world - Bandaranaike 
• 1st woman minister in government - Amrit Kaur

The correct answer is Nuclear deterrence.

Key Points

• The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a series of agreements between the People’s Republic of China and India.
• The agreement was signed on 29th April 1954 in Beijing by the Indian Ambassador N. Raghavan and Chang Han-fu, the Chinese Deputy Foreign Minister of China.
• The 5 principles are called the Panchsheel, which form the basis of the Non-Aligned Movement and were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru.
• Panchsheel principles are:
  • Mutual respect for each other ’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
  • Mutual non-aggression against anyone.
  • Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
  • Equality and mutual benefit
  • Peaceful co-existence.

Mistake Points

• Nuclear deterrence is not included in Panchsheel principles.

The correct answer is VK Krishna Menon.

Key Points 

• VK Krishna Menon was the fifth Defence Minister of India from 1957 to 1962.
  • He was the Defence Minister of India during the Sino-Indian war of 1962.
  • He was heavily criticized for ineffectiveness and poorly handling of defence matters.
  • The strong opposition forced him to leave the Ministry of Defense in October 1962.
• The first draft of the Preamble to the Constitution of India was written by VK Krishna Menon.
• He was appointed high commissioner (ambassador) of India in London in 1947.
• He was elected to the Rajya Sabha in 1953 from Madras.
• He represented India in the United Nations General Assembly from 1952 to 1960.
• He was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in 1954.

Additional Information 

• Yashwantrao Balwantrao Chavan was the last Chief Minister of Bombay State and the first Chief Minister of Maharashtra state.
  • He served as the 5th Deputy Prime Minister of India from 1979 to 1980.
  • He served as the Minister of Defence from 1962 to 1966.
• Gulzarilal Nanda was the Acting Prime Minister of India for two short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966.
• Jagjivan Ram served as the Minister of Defence from 1977 to 1979.
  • He was the fourth Deputy Prime Minister of India.

• Haqeeqat film is set in the backdrop of the India-China War of 1962.
• It was directed by Chetan Anand in the year 1964.
• The film won the National Film Award for Second Best Feature Film in 1965.
• It was screened on August 12, 2016, at the Independence Day Film Festival.

The correct answer is option 2, i.e. Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Key Points

• The famous slogan of ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ was coined by former prime minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.
• This popular slogan was coined in the context of the India-Pakistan war and the challenge was compounded by the scarcity of food grains.
• Late Shashtri had given the slogan 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan' to encourage the soldiers to defend the country and also simultaneously recorded his appreciation for the farmers to do the best to increase the production of food grains.

Additional Information

Morarji Desai:

• He was an Indian independence activist and served between 1977 and 1979 as the 4th Prime Minister of India.
• He was appointed as Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Finance in Indira Gandhi's cabinet, until 1969.
• He became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India.
• He was conferred with India's highest civilian honour, the Bharat Ratna.
• He holds the record of presenting the maximum number of Budgets, including two Interim Budgets. He tabled the Union Budget for 10 times from 1959 to 1963.

Jawaharlal Nehru:

• Pandit Nehru was a prominent figure in Indian politics as he was a freedom fighter before independence and the first Prime Minister of India after independence.
• His birthday (14 November) is celebrated as National Children’s Day as he loved children very much.

• Aruna Roy Indian social activist is known for her efforts to fight corruption and promote government transparency.
• Aruna Roy started a campaign for the Right to Information.
• The RTI campaign attempted to design tools for excavating information and truth from deliberate overlays of lies and deceit intended to hide corruption and the arbitrary use of power.
•  Aruna joined the Social Work and Research Centre, a rural-development organization in Tilonia, Rajasthan and in 1990, moved to Devdungri, Rajasthan to form the Workers and Peasants Strength Union (Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan; MKSS). 
• MKSS is an organization devoted to empowering workers and peasants, specifically through their right of access to information.

The correct answer is Section 377 of IPC.

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India ruled that the application of Section 377 to consensual homosexual sex between adults was unconstitutional, irrational, indefensible, and manifestly arbitrary on 6 September 2018.
• Section 377 remains in force relating to sex with minors, non-consensual sexual acts, and bestiality.

Additional Information

• Section 377 of the Indian Penal code introduced in 1861 during British India.
• It modeled on the Buggery Act of 1533.
• Other information
  • Article 277 - Comes under Part XII-Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits and titled Savings.
  • Article 377 - Comes under Part XXI-Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions.
    • Titled - Provisions as to Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

The framers of the Constitution were aware and conscious of the lack of homogeneity of the Indian Society and apart from the differences in religion, culture, language, etc. there existed people who were in comparison weaker than others – economically, socially, and culturally. 

• To ameliorate the conditions of weaker and backward classes, and to make them at par with the other sections of society, the Constitution gave us a mechanism to safeguard the Backward Classes and Scheduled Castes.​

Important Points

 Indira Sawhney and others Vs, Union of India:

• This was the case when the concept of the Creamy layer was formed.
• On January 1, 1979, the Janta Party Government led by Prime Minister Shri Morarji Desai set up the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBC) Commission headed by Shri B.P. Mandal.
• This commission was appointed by the President of India under Article 340 of the Constitution of India. 
• The first SEBC commission was set up in January 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka Kalelkar. It presented its report on March 30, 1955, listing down 2399 ranks as socially and educationally in deprived class on rules made by the Central Government.
• The Mandal commission formed another report which was also not accepted by then Prime Minister, Smt. Indira Gandhi.
• After that, again when Janta Dal came into power then Prime Minister V.P, Singh issued an office of a memorandum on August 13, 1990, and reserved 27% seats for the Socially & Backward classes.
• This caused a civil disturbance in the country.
• Anti reservation moment was started from various parts of the country. Indian Youth were in the streets to protest against this decision.
• VP Singh's government again fell and through a General Election Congress government drove by P.V. Narsimha Rao again came into power. He chose to give another Office of Memorandum by rolling out 2 improvements:
  • by presenting the financial rule in allowing reservation inside 27% in Govt. Work and 
  • Reserved another 10% of opportunities socially and instructively in reverse classes. That is complete 37% (27% 10%).

Thus, we can say that the "Indira Sawhney and others Vs, Union of India" case is related to the OBC reservation.

• The seventh and last deputy Prime Minister of India was L. K. Advani.
• He took on the role in addition to his home ministership from 2002 to 2004 in Atal Bihari Vajpayee's government.
• The first Deputy Prime Minister of India was Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

The correct answer is Panchayati Raj bodies.

Key Points

• Women Reservation in India:
  • In India, seats are reserved for women in Panchayat Raj bodies which are local self-governing bodies.
  • According to the 73rd amendment act, 1/3rd of seats are reserved for women apart from the total number of seats. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Clause (3) of Article 243D of the Constitution ensures participation of women in Panchayati Raj Institutions by mandating not less than one-third reservation for women out of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election and number of offices of chairpersons of Panchayats.
  •  20 States namely Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal have made provisions of 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions in their respective State Panchayati Raj Acts. 

Additional Information

• Women’s Reservation Bill (The Constitution (108 Amendment) Bill, 2008):
  • The bill seeks to reserve 33% seats in Lok Sabha and all state legislative assemblies for women.
  • Reserved seats may be allotted by rotation to different constituencies in the state or union territory.
  • Reservation of seats for women shall cease to exist 15 years after the commencement of this Amendment Act.

India has a political system that advocates for liberal democracy and elects its government by universal adult suffrage. It observes a multi-party system. The political parties can be strictly categorised as National or Regional/State Party depending on their area of concern and popularity.

 Important Points

• A political party must meet at least one of the following requirements in order to become a state party:
  • For every 25 seats (or portion thereof) assigned to that State, a party must win at least one Lok Sabha seat. Or,
  • A party must win a minimum of 3% of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly, or three seats. Or,
  • In a given election, the party must receive at least 6% of the total vote, as well as one Lok Sabha and two Assembly seats. Or,
  • Even if a party does not win any seats in the State's Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly in a general election, it can still be recognised as a State Party if it receives 8% or more of the total valid votes cast in the State.
• ​Based on the above criteria Shiv Sena is a State Party of Maharashtra, currently as the ruling party. 

Additional Information

The State Party and their area of dominance are given below:

• Aam Admi Party: Delhi
• Rashtriya Janata Dal: Bihar
• Shiromani Akali Dal: Punjab

​Hence Shiv Sena is a State Party that hails from Maharashtra.

The correct answer is Article 44.

Key Points

• Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the Constitution says:
  • "State shall endeavor to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India".
• The objective of Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution was to address the discrimination against vulnerable groups and harmonize diverse cultural groups across the country.
• The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the formulation of one law for India, which would be applicable to all religious communities in matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, adoption.
• The origin of the UCC dates back to colonial India when the British government submitted its report in 1835 stressing the need for uniformity in the codification of Indian law relating to crimes, evidence, and contracts, specifically recommending that personal laws of Hindus and Muslims be kept outside such codification.

• Article 40 of the Constitution deals with the steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.
• Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society and ensures justice for all.
• Article 41 of the Constitution provides that “the State shall within the limits of its economic capacity and development, make effective provision for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, and in other cases of undeserved want.”