AISSEE Class IX Mock Test

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AISSEE Class IX Mock Test - 2

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Question 1
2.67 / -0

Keira thinks of a number a6a41 and the number is divisible by 9, but she forgets the value of a. What is the value of a?

A
9

B
7

C
8

D
6

Solution

a6a41 is the number.
(a + 6 + a + 4 + 1) should be divisible by 9.
Or, (2a + 11) should be divisible by 9.
We know that a number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9.
2a + 11 = 9 or 2a + 11 = 18 or 2a + 11 = 27
But 2a + 11 = 9 or 2a + 11 = 18 is not possible, so
2a + 11 = 27 a = 8
Question 2
2.67 / -0

Which of the following numbers is in standard form?

A

B

C

D

Solution

Given:

In order to express it in standard form, we divide its numerator and denominator by the greatest common divisor.

For both 17 and 197, HCF is 1.

So, is in standard form.
Question 3
2.67 / -0

What should be subtracted from to get - ?

A

B

C

D

Solution

Let the number be 'y'.
According to the question,
- y = -
= y

= y

= y
Question 4
2.67 / -0

16^2.5 : 10³ is the same as

A
64 : 225

B
32 : 125

C
128 : 125

D
125 : 128

Solution

16^2.5 : 10³
So, (2)^4(2.5) : (2 × 5)³= (2)¹⁰ : (2)³ × (5)³= 2⁷ : 5³= 128 : 125
Question 5
2.67 / -0

The ratio of ages of P and Q is 2 : 3. Six years hence, their ages will be in the ratio 5 : 7. What is the present age of P?

A
12

B
24

C
28

D
32

Solution

Let the present age of P be '2x' and '3x'.
According to the question:

7(2x + 6) = 5(3x + 6)
14x + 42 = 15x + 30
42 - 30 = 15x - 14x
12 = x
Thus, present age of P = 2 × 12 = 24 years
Question 6
2.67 / -0

A number consists of two digits and the digit in the units place is less than the digit in the tens place by 5. The digits of the number get reversed, if 5 times the sum of the digits is subtracted from the number. What is the number?

A
61

B
72

C
83

D
94

Solution

Let the units digit be x.
Then, tens digit is x + 5.
Number = 10(x + 5) + x = 10x + 50 + x = 11x + 50
When the digits are reversed, the number is:
10x + x + 5 = 11x + 5
According to the question,
11x + 50 − 5(2x + 5) = 10x + x + 5
x + 25 = 11x + 5
10x = 20
x = 2
So, the number is 72.
Question 7
2.67 / -0

Two consecutive numbers are such that half of the smaller number exceeds one-third of the larger number by 2. Find the larger number.

A
11

B
9

C
14

D
15

Solution

Let the two consecutive numbers be x and (x + 1).
According to the question,

x = (x + 1) + 2
x = x + + 2
= +
- =
=

x = × 6 = 14

Therefore, the larger number is:
x + 1 = 14 + 1 = 15
Question 8
2.67 / -0

The sum of digits of a two-digit number is 10. If 18 is added to the number the digits are interchanged. Find the original number.

A
64

B
46

C
37

D
35

Solution

Let the digit at unit's place be y and the digit at tens place be x.
A.T.Q.
x + y = 10....(1)
10x + y + 18 = 10y + x
This implies that 9y - 9x = -18
Therefore, y - x = 2......(2)
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get
2y = 12
y = 6
Put the value of y in equation (1).
Hence, x = 4
Thus, the original number = 10x + y = 10(4) + 6 = 46.
Question 9
2.67 / -0

What will be the value of P(Q + R) – S?

A
43

B
63

C
88

D
90

Solution

On solving this, we get

So, P = 8; Q = 0; R = 6; S = 5
P(Q + R) – S = 8(0 + 6) – 5 = 48 – 5 = 43
Question 10
2.67 / -0

For all natural numbers n, the number n² + n + 1 is

A
always odd

B
always even

C
a multiple of 3

D
a multiple of 6

Solution

n² + n + 1 = n(n + 1) + 1
Now, if n is even, n + 1 is odd.
Thus, n(n + 1) is even = 2a (let)
n(n + 1) + 1 = 2a + 1, which is odd.
If n is odd, n + 1 is even.
Thus, n(n + 1) is even = 2b (let)
Thus, n(n + 1) + 1 = 2b + 1, which is odd.
Thus, the given expression is always odd.
Hence, option (1) is correct.
Question 11
2.67 / -0

A cylindrical storage tank can hold 59400 m³of juice when the diameter of its base is 60 cm. What is the height of tank?

A
21 m

B
20 m

C
19 m

D
25 m

Solution

Volume of tank = 59400 m³
Diameter = 60 m

Radius =
=

= 30 m
Volume of the tank = πr²h

59400 = × 30 × 30 × h
h = 59400 × ×
h = 21 m
Question 12
2.67 / -0

The mean height of some athletes is 162 cm. If the coach with height 180 cm is also included, then the mean height increases by 2 cm. How many athletes are there in total?

A
5

B
7

C
6

D
8

Solution

Let the number of athletes be 'x'.
According to the question,
Total height of all athletes = 162x
Similarly, when the coach with height 180 cm gets included:
Total number of people = x + 1
So,

162x + 180 = 164(x + 1)
2x = 180 - 164
x = 8
Therefore, total number of athletes in the group = 8
Question 13
2.67 / -0

Find the volume of the given figure.

A
6061 mm³

B
6160 mm³

C
1450 mm³

D
1540 mm³

Solution

Volume of cylinder = πr²h
R = (d/2) = (14/2) = 7 mm

Volume = = 1540 mm³
Question 14
2.67 / -0

There is a triangle whose area is 144 m². Find the base of this triangle provided that its base is 8 times the height.

A
10 m

B
18 m

C
20 m

D
48 m

Solution

Area of triangle:

A = (B × H) where B is base, and H is height of triangle

Given: B = 8H
According to the triangle:

144 = × (8H × H)

144 = × (8H²)

144 = 4H²
36 = H²
So, H = 6 m and B = 8H = 8 × 6 = 48 m
Question 15
2.67 / -0

How many edges does a pentagonal prism have?

A
10

B
15

C
20

D
22

Solution

A pentagonal prism is a prism with a pentagonal base.
Question 16
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There are 7 terms arranged in descending order. The mean of all of these terms is 7. If 3 is added to each term and then each term is divided by 2 to get the new mean as A, then find the difference between A and the original mean.

A
2

B
9

C
6

D
3

Solution

Let the terms be x₁, x₂, x₃, ..., x₇.
Now from the information given in the question:
x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + x₄ + x₅ + x₆ + x₇ = 7 × 7 = 49
When 3 is added to each term, then
Total sum = 49 + 3 × 7 = 49 + 21 = 70
When each term is divided by 2, thenTotal sum = 70/2 = 35
So, the new mean, A = (35/7) = 5
So, the difference between them is:
7 - 5 = 2
Question 17
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The perimeter of a right-angled isosceles triangle is m. Find the area of the triangle.

A

B

C

D

Solution

Perimeter of a right-angled isosceles triangle = m

Let the sides be 'a', 'a' and m.

So, Perimeter = a + a + = Therefore, = (Rationalising the denominator)

= m

Area of the right-angled isosceles triangle = == m²
Question 18
2.67 / -0

A wall 8 m long, 6 m high and 22.5 cm thick is made up of bricks, each measuring 25 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm. Find the number of bricks required.

A
6000

B
6200

C
6400

D
7200

Solution

Number of bricks required = = 6400
Question 19
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PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral with PQ || SR. If ∠SPQ = 98°, then find ∠PQR.

A
92°

B
278°

C
178°

D
98°

Solution

If sum of any pair of opposite angles of a quadrilateral is 180°, then that quadrilateral is cyclic.
∠SPQ + ∠SRQ = 180°
98° + ∠SRQ = 180°
∠SRQ = 180 - 98 = 82°
Now, ∠PQR + ∠QRS = 180°
∠PQR + 82° = 180°
∠PQR = 98°
Question 20
2.67 / -0

Office building of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. is in the shape of a pentagonal prism. While giving a tour of the building to one of the new investors, Jon the owner, was asked about the number of faces that the office building has. What was the answer that Jon gave?

A
5

B
7

C
9

D
11

Solution

According to the given figure:

The office building has 7 faces (2 top and bottom faces and 5 lateral faces)
Question 21
2.67 / -0

Rahul is playing a game. He has got some cards printed numbers on them and on random picking, he got 13, 18, 13, 14, 13, 16, 14, 21 and 13 as the outcome. What is the median of the outcome?

A
14

B
12

C
10

D
8

Solution

Since the median is the middle value, so we will first have to rearrange the list in the increasing order:
13, 13, 13, 13, 14, 14, 16, 18, 21
There are nine numbers in the list, so the middle one will be the 5^th number, as:
(9 + 1) ÷ 2 = 10 ÷ 2 = 5
13, 13, 13, 13, 14, 14, 16, 18, 21
So, the median is 14.
Question 22
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There are 60 cards printed with numbers from 1-60. What is the probability that a card drawn at random has a number printed on it, which is a multiple of 15?

A

B

C

D

Solution

The multiples of 15 are:
15, 30, 45, 60
Favourable outcomes = 4
Total outcomes = 60
Now,
Probability = (Favourable outcomes)/(Total number of outcomes)

=
Question 23
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Three metal cubes having volumes 125 cubic cm, 64 cubic cm and 27 cubic cm are melted to form a new cube. Find the value of edge of the new cube.

A
10 cm

B
8 cm

C
7 cm

D
6 cm

Solution

Since three metal cubes of volumes 125 cm³, 64 cm³ and 27 cm³ are melted to form a new cube,
Therefore, volume of the new cube = 125 + 64 + 27 = 216 cm³
Total volume = 216 cm³
a³ = 216 cm³a³ = 6³On comparing, we get
a = 6
Edge = 6 cm
Question 24
2.67 / -0

What is the measure of each exterior angle of a regular octagon?

A
45°

B
60°

C
120°

D
145°

Solution

Measure of each exterior angle of a regular polygon = (where n = number of sides)
In a regular octagon, n = 8.
So, measure of each exterior angle of a regular octagon = = 45°
Question 25
2.67 / -0

If p = and q = (r)^-4, then find the value of p in terms of r.

A

B
-r¹⁰

C
r⁵

D
r^-5

Solution

p =
q = r^-4Putting the values, we get
p =
p = (r)^-5
Question 26
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What will be the quotient if we divide (x²- 9x - 10) by (x + 1)?

A
2x + 1

B
9x - 10

C
x - 10

D
x - 6

Solution
Question 27
2.67 / -0

Rajdeep offers a discount of 55% on his goods. How much percent the cost price of goods must be marked to make a profit of 12%?

A
250%

B
148.9%

C
236.6%

D
223.17%

Solution

Let the CP be Rs. 100.
For 12% profit, SP should be Rs. 112.
After 55% discount, 45% of the MP = Rs. 112
Therefore,
MP = = Rs. 248.9
Required % = = 148.9%
Question 28
2.67 / -0

(73)² - (27)² is equal to

A
4100

B
4000

C
4630

D
4600

Solution

(73)² - (27)²Using (a² - b²) = (a - b)(a + b);
(73)² - (27)²= (73 - 27) (73 + 27)
= (46) × (100)
= 4600
Question 29
2.67 / -0

The volume of a rectangular box is 25.14 m³. Find the length of the box if its width and height are 5 m and 2.3 m, respectively.

A
2.20 m

B
3.12 m

C
1.96 m

D
4.28 m

Solution

Volume = 25.3 m³
l × w × h = 25.3
l × 5 × 2.3 = 25.3
l × 11.5 = 25.3
l = = 2.2 m
Question 30
2.67 / -0

How many non-perfect square numbers lie between the squares of 98 and 99?

A
197

B
196

C
190

D
195

Solution

There are 2n non-perfect square numbers that lie between the squares of n and n + 1.
So, there are 196 non-perfect square numbers that lie between the squares of 98 and 99.
Question 31
2.67 / -0

It is given that 6539203 = 4913 × 1331. What is the cube root of 6539203?

A
124

B
153

C
198

D
187

Solution

Given:
6539203 = 4913 × 1331
Cube root of 4913 = = 17
Cube root of 1331 = = 11
Therefore,

= 17 × 11 = 187
Question 32
2.67 / -0

Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?

A
7776

B
52488

C
11664

D
13824

Solution

Every number can be expressed as the product of power of its prime factors.
If the power of all the prime factors is in the multiple of 3, then the number is said to be a perfect cube.
Using this concept, we have:
The prime factors of 13824 = 2⁹ × 3³, which makes it a perfect cube.
Question 33
2.67 / -0

If the cost price of 15 tables is equal to the selling price of 20 tables, then the loss percentage in the transaction is

A
18%

B
20%

C
25%

D
24%

Solution

15 C.P. = 20 S.P.
or = 0.75 C.P.Therefore, loss % = = = 25There is 25% loss.
Question 34
2.67 / -0

Vikram borrowed Rs. 5000 from Sumit for 2 years. Sameer borrowed Rs. 3000 from Sumit for 4 years. They paid Rs. 2200 in total at the same rate of interest. Calculate the rate of interest.

A
10%

B
20%

C
30%

D
40%

Solution

Let the rate be R % p.a.
Then,

100R + 120R = 2200
220R = 2200
R = 10%
So, rate of interest = 10%
Question 35
2.67 / -0

Which among the following can definitely not be a square number?

A
16384

B
13689

C
28561

D
48542

Solution

Square numbers always end with digits 0, 1, 4, 5, 6, 9.
So, from looking at the units digits in the given options, we can say that only 48542 can definitely not be a square number.
Question 36
2.67 / -0

A person makes a profit of Rs. 800 by selling a product. If the person wants to double his profit, he will need to increase the SP (selling price) of the product by 20%. At what price did the person purchase the product?

A
Rs. 3200

B
Rs. 4000

C
Rs. 4800

D
None of these

Solution

Let x be the initial SP of the product.
According to the given condition:
1.2x - x = Rs. 800
0.2x = Rs. 800
x = Rs. 4000
The person purchased the product at (4000 - 800) = Rs. 3200.
Question 37
2.67 / -0

Ravi and Param were given a work to do. If they do the work together, they can finish it in 30 days. Param can do the same work in 40 days. How many days will Ravi take to complete the same work alone?

A
150

B
120

C
70

D
50

Solution

Time taken by Ravi and Param to complete the work = 30 days
Time taken by Param to complete the work = 40 days

Ravi and Param's one-day work =
Param's one-day work =

Ravi's one-day work = {(Ravi and Param's one-day work} - {Param's one-day work}

=

=

=

So, Ravi alone can finish the work in 120 days.
Question 38
2.67 / -0

Four friends planned a road trip from Ludhiana to Gurugram. They went there by car and the distance was 360 km. They took 4 stoppages of half an hour each. They started their journey at 7 a.m. in the morning and they reached Gurugram at 1 p.m. Find the speed of the car.

A
80 km/hr

B
60 km/hr

C
70 km/hr

D
90 km/hr

Solution

Total time taken by the friends to reach = 7 a.m. to 1 p.m = 6 hr
Time for which the stopped = 4 × 30 min = 120 min = 2 hr
So, actual time taken to cover the distance = 6 - 2 = 4 hours
Average speed = (360/4) = 90 km/hr
Question 39
2.67 / -0

Simplify: (y⁴+ 10y²+ 25) ÷ (y²+ 5)

A
y² + 5

B
y² - 5

C
y² + 1

D
y² - 1

Solution

y⁴ + 10y² + 25
Using (a + b)² = a² + b² + 2ab
= {(y²)² + 2 × 5y² + 25)}
= (y² + 5)²
Then, (y⁴ + 10y² + 25) ÷ (y²+ 5)
= (y²+ 5)² ÷ (y² + 5)
= y² + 5
Question 40
2.67 / -0

What is the result of [(2x - 6)(2x - 5) + (x + 6)(x - 5)]?

A
18x + 60

B
5x² - 21x

C
5x² + 21x + 60

D
5x² + 21

Solution

We know,
(x + a)(x + b) = x² + (a + b)x + ab
(2x - 6)(2x - 5) = (2x)² + (-6 - 5)2x + (-6)(-5)
= 4x² - 22x + 30 ... (i)
(x + 6)(x - 5) = x² + (6 -5)x + (6)(-5)
= x² + x - 30 ... (ii)
Now, on adding (i) and (ii), we get
x² + x - 30 + 4x² - 22x + 30
= 5x² - 21x
Hence, (2) is the correct option.
Question 41
2.67 / -0

If y² + = 79, find the value of .

A
9

B
10

C
11

D
12

Solution

+ 2
= 79 + 2

= 81
= 9
Question 42
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Find the factors of a⁴ + 2a²b³ + b⁶.

A
(a² + b²), (a² + b²)

B
(a³ + b³), (a² + b³)

C
(a² + b³), (a² + b³)

D
(a² + b²), (a² + b³)

Solution

a⁴ + 2a²b³ + b⁶
= (a²)² + 2a²b³ + (b³)²
= (a² + b³)²
= (a² + b³)(a² + b³)
Question 43
2.67 / -0

1200 participants are participating in a management quiz in a college which is going to last for 28 days. The organisers have arranged the food for all participants for next 4 weeks. After 4 days, 4teams were eliminated from the group stage, and these four teams left the venue after elimination. Now, the food is going to last long for 32 more days. How many participants left the venue after elimination?

A
600

B
500

C
400

D
300

Solution

It is given that 1200 participants in a college have enough food for 28 days.
Let the number of participants eliminated be 'x'.
After 4 days, number of participants = (1200 – x)
Now, the food will last for 32 more days.
Hence,
1200 × 24 = (1200 – x) × 32
⇒ (1200 – x) = 900
⇒ x = 1200 – 900 = 300
Question 44
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Bullet train covers 450 km in 2.5 hr. How long will it take to cover the same distance if its new speed is 30 km/hr less than the old speed?

A
5 hr

B
7.5 hr

C
3 hr

D
3.5 hr

Solution

Speed =

Speed = 450/(2.5) = 180 km/hr
New speed = 180 - 30 = 150 km/hr

Time taken =
= = 3 hr
Question 45
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If , find the value of x.

A
3

B
5

C

D

Solution

= 2^x
= 2^x

= 2^x x =
Question 46
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the following graph while answering the question.

...view full instructions

In a city, the temperature is rising. The graph shows the temperature from 6 a.m. to 2 p.m.

What is the temperature difference from 8 a.m. to 11 a.m?

A
5°C

B
10°C

C
15°C

D
16°C

Solution

Referring to the graph, we have
Temperature at 8 a.m. = 10°C
Temperature at 11 a.m. = 20°C
Temperature difference = 10°C
Question 47
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the following graph while answering the question.

...view full instructions

Is temperature at 8 a.m. and 1 p.m. taken together less or more than the temperature at 4 p.m, and by how much?

A
More by 5°C

B
Less by 4°C

C
Less by 5°C

D
More by 4°C

Solution

Referring from the graph,
Temperature at 8 a.m. = 10°C
Temperature at 1 p.m. = 20°C
Temperature taken together = 30°C
Temperature at 4 p.m. = 25°C
Temperature at 8 a.m. and 1 p.m. taken together is more than the temperature at 4 p.m. by 5°C.
Question 48
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the following graph while answering the question.

...view full instructions

What is the temperature difference between maximum and minimum temperatures from 6 a.m. to 4 p.m?

A
15°C

B
12°C

C
10°C

D
16°C

Solution

Referring from the graph,
Maximum temperature = 25°C
Minimum temperature = 10°C
Difference = 15°C
Question 49
2.67 / -0

Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the following graph while answering the question.

...view full instructions

What would be the temperature at 8 p.m, if temperature is decreasing by 2°C after every 2 hr after 4 p.m?

A
23°C

B
22°C

C
20°C

D
21°C

Solution

Referring from the graph,
Temperature at 4 p.m. = 25°C
Temperature decreased from 4 p.m. to 8 p.m. = -4°C
So, temperature at 8 p.m. = 25 - 4 = 21°C
Question 50
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the following graph while answering the question.

...view full instructions

What is the scale taken for y-axis?

A
1 unit = 5°C

B
1 unit = 2 hr

C
1 unit = 1 hr

D
2 unit = 2 hr

Solution

Referring from the graph,
y-axis is going vertical and it is showing temperature.
So, 1 unit = 5°C
Question 51
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Directions: Select the option that best punctuates the given sentence.

A
N. R. Narayana Murthy, the founder of Infosys, is an IITian.

B
N R Narayana Murthy, the founder of Infosys, is, an IITian.

C
N. R. Narayana Murthy, the founder of Infosys is an IITian.

D
N R Narayana Murthy, the founder of Infosys is an IITian.

Solution

A comma is used between nouns or pronouns in apposition.
Question 52
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Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in direct/indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.

The teacher said to the student, "Why were you absent yesterday?"

A
The teacher asked the student why had been he absent the previous day.

B
The teacher asked the student why had he been absent the previous day.

C
The teacher informed the student that why he had been absent the next day.

D
The teacher asked the student why he had been absent the previous day.

Solution

The reporting verb is in past tense. Hence, the tense of the sentence will change from simple past to past perfect. The interrogative sentence changes into a statement when the narration is changed. The reporting verb 'said' changes to asked, queried, questioned etc. When a question begins with a question word such as where, why, how etc., the same word is used to introduce the question in the indirect speech. As the sentence will be assertive, normal word order will follow, i.e. subject will come before the auxiliary and main verb. Hence, options (1) and (2) are incorrect. Option (3) is incorrect as 'informed' has wrongly been used in place of 'asked'.
Question 53
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Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in direct/indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.

My sister said, "They will contact you as soon as they finish the job."

A
My sister said that they would contact me as soon as they would finish the job.

B
My sister said that they would contact me as soon as they finished the job.

C
My sister said that they would contact me as soon as they will finish the job.

D
My sister told to me that they would contact me as soon as they would finish the job.

Solution

As the reporting verb is in past tense, the reported speech will also be in the past tense. 'Will' changes to 'would' and 'finish' changes to 'finished.'
Options (1) and (4) unnecessarily add 'would' before 'finish'.
Option (3) changes the tense of 'finish', which is incorrect. Thus, option (2) is the correct answer.
Question 54
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Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

Do not insult the poor.

A
The poor are not insulted.

B
The poor is not insulted.

C
Let the poor be not insulted.

D
Let the poor not be insulted.

Solution

In an imperative sentence when the active voice is in the negative, the passive voice takes the form: Let + object + not + be + past participle. 'Do' is not used in the passive form. So, option 4 is the correct answer.
Question 55
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Directions: In the following question, out of four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Transcend

A
Eclipse

B
Fizzle

C
Abort

D
Blunder

Solution

'Transcend' means 'outshine', 'surpass' or 'eclipse'. So, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 56
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Directions: In the following question, out of four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Bogus

A
Genuine

B
Real

C
Fake

D
Authentic

Solution

The word 'bogus' means 'false or not real.'
'Fake' also means 'not real, but made to look or seem real.'
So, option 3 is the correct answer.
Question 57
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Directions: Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the below idiom/phrase.

A laughing stock

A
An object of laughter

B
A storehouse of jokes

C
An object of desire

D
A stock of high value

Solution

'A laughing stock' means a person subjected to general mockery or ridicule; an object of laughter.
Question 58
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Directions: Out of the four alternatives, choose the correct antonym of the given word.

Barren

A
Oily

B
Polished

C
Sorrowful

D
Fertile

Solution

'Barren' means 'having little or no vegetation; desolate and lifeless,' while 'fertile' means 'capable of growing abundant crops or plants.' So, option 4 is the correct answer.
Question 59
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Directions: Choose the plural of the given word.

Torpedo

A
Torpedos

B
Torpedoes

C
Torpedose

D
Torpedoss

Solution

Option 2 is the correct answer.

Singular Plural

Torpedo Torpedoes
Question 60
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Directions: In the question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, then choose (D) as your answer.

I am counting (A) my calories, yet I (B) really wants to eat a dessert. (C) No error (D)

A
(A)

B
(B)

C
(C)

D
(D)

Solution

"Wants" shall be replaced with "want". ''I'' would require a plural verb.
Question 61
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Directions: In the given question, a sentence is divided into three parts (a), (b) and (c). One of these parts may have an error. Mark that part as your answer. If the sentence is correct as given, mark your answer as (d). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

He has flew (a) to New York without (b) informing anybody. (c) no error (d)

A
(a)

B
(b)

C
(c)

D
(d)

Solution

The correct phrase would be: 'He has flown'. With 'has', we use third form of the verb, which is 'flown'.
Question 62
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Directions: Choose the correct order to make the sentence below meaningful.

and tried to (1)/ and cities into great cultural centres (2)/ patronage to the (3)/ learned and pious (4)/ rulers offered (5)/ transform their capitals (6)

A
215463

B
621345

C
315462

D
534162

Solution

The correct sentence is:
Rulers offered patronage to the learned and pious, and tried to transform their capitals and cities into great cultural centres.
Question 63
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Directions: Identify the correct idiom or phrase to complete the sentence.

It is good to _________but not all the time.

A
call a spade a spade

B
talk a spade a spade

C
talk a spade

D
make a spade a spade

Solution

The correct idiom is 'call a spade a spade'. It means to speak plainly without avoiding unpleasant or embarrassing issues.
Question 64
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Directions: Find the prefix for the following word:

Aware

A
Un

B
In

C
Non

D
Im

Solution

Un + aware = Unaware
The word is often followed by 'of' and means 'not aware'.
Question 65
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Directions: Complete the following maxim.

An empty bag will not stand _____.

A
weakly

B
astride

C
still

D
upright

Solution

The correct maxim is 'An empty bag will not stand upright'. It means one will not be able to work or do something unless one has eaten something.
Question 66
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Directions: The item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Thrifty as he is, he can well afford to live within his means.

A
Careless

B
Instinctive

C
Sentimental

D
Extravagant

Solution

'Thrifty' means 'using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully'. So, the opposite is 'extravagant'.
Question 67
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Directions: The item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Do not give him a responsible job, he is immature.

A
thoughtful

B
cautious

C
calculating

D
seasoned

Solution

'Seasoned' means 'experienced or mature'. So, the opposite of 'immature' is 'mature' or 'seasoned'.
Question 68
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Directions: The following item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response.

In spite of hard work, the farmers could only get a meagre yield.

A
Satisfactory

B
Scanty

C
Plenty

D
Normal

Solution

'Meagre' means 'deficient in quantity or scanty'.
Question 69
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Directions: A sentence is given with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response accordingly.

In ancient India, scholars had no interest in political power or material growth.

A
Internal

B
Spiritual

C
Psychic

D
Celestial

Solution

'Material' refers to something 'concerned with worldly rather than spiritual interests.' So, option 2 is the correct answer.
Question 70
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Directions: A sentence is given with an underlined word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word. Choose the word and indicate your response accordingly.

A friendly dog met us at the farm gate.

A
Helpful

B
Understanding

C
Quiet

D
Hostile

Solution

'Friendly' means 'characteristic of or befitting a friend,' while 'hostile' refers to someone 'characterized by enmity or ill will.'
Question 71
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The adjective form of 'pride' is

A
proudy

B
proudful

C
proud

D
priding

Solution

The adjective 'proud' means 'feeling self-respect or pleasure in something by which you measure your self-worth; or being a reason for pride'.
Question 72
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Read the following passage and then answer the question.

Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need - all their food, their clothes, their housing, their tools. Ever since men started living in communities, they have been satisfying their needs by means of specialisation and exchange; increasingly each individual has concentrated on what he can do best, and has produced more of the special goods or services in which he has concentrated; than he can consume himself. The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others have produced.

...view full instructions

Very few people can satisfy their needs today by

A
producing things for themselves

B
exchanging goods and services

C
concentrating on what they can do best

D
individual specialisation

Solution

The answer can be found in the line "Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need ..."
Question 73
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Read the following passage and then answer the question.

Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need - all their food, their clothes, their housing, their tools. Ever since men started living in communities, they have been satisfying their needs by means of specialisation and exchange; increasingly each individual has concentrated on what he can do best, and has produced more of the special goods or services in which he has concentrated; than he can consume himself. The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others have produced.

...view full instructions

Exchange of goods becomes possible only when

A
there is no specialisation

B
goods are produced in surplus

C
primitive societies become modern

D
individuals make things for themselves

Solution

The answer can be found in the line, "The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others have produced."
Question 74
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Read the following passage and then answer the question.

Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need - all their food, their clothes, their housing, their tools. Ever since men started living in communities, they have been satisfying their needs by means of specialisation and exchange; increasingly each individual has concentrated on what he can do best, and has produced more of the special goods or services in which he has concentrated; than he can consume himself. The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others have produced.

...view full instructions

Specialisation and exchange began when men started

A
big industries

B
concentrating on their work

C
producing things for individual use

D
living in communities

Solution

The answer is in the line, "Ever since men started living in communities, they have been satisfying their needs by means of specialisation and exchange ..."
Question 75
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Read the following passage and then answer the question.

Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need - all their food, their clothes, their housing, their tools. Ever since men started living in communities, they have been satisfying their needs by means of specialisation and exchange; increasingly each individual has concentrated on what he can do best, and has produced more of the special goods or services in which he has concentrated; than he can consume himself. The surplus he has exchanged with other members of the community, acquiring, in exchange the things he needs that others have produced.

...view full instructions

Exchange of goods and services becomes necessary because

A
man is a social being

B
reciprocity is the law of life

C
trade and commerce are means of progress

D
we cannot produce everything we need for ourselves

Solution

The passage states, "Even in the most primitive societies, the great majority of people satisfy a large part of their material needs by exchanging goods and services. Very few people indeed can make for themselves everything they need ..." From this we can infer that option 4 is the correct answer.
Question 76
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_____ are a group of small bodies made up of rocks and metals which revolve around the sun.

A
Meteors

B
Meteorites

C
Asteroids

D
Constellations

Solution

Asteroids are minor planets, especially of the inner solar system. Although asteroids orbit the sun like planets, they are much smaller than planets. There are lots of asteroids in our solar system. Most of them live in the main asteroid belt—a region between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
Question 77
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Ursa Major (Great Bear) constellation is also known as the

A
Polaris

B
Big Dipper

C
Little Bear

D
Antares

Solution

Ursa Major (Great Bear) constellation is a prominent pattern of bright stars and is circumpolar for mid-northern to polar latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere. Also known as the Great Bear, it has a companion called Ursa Minor, or Little Bear. The body and tail of the bear make up what is known as the Big Dipper.
Question 78
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For good growth of lentils and pulses, ___________ is required.

A
clayey soil

B
sandy soil

C
loamy soil

D
mixture of sand and clay

Solution

Loamy soil consists of sand, clay and silt. It also contains enough humus. It has a good water-holding capacity. It is ideal for growing crops such as wheat, sugarcane, cotton, jute, pulses, lentils and oilseeds.
Question 79
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Which of the following gases is used to control combustion?

A
Oxygen

B
Carbon dioxide

C
Methane

D
Nitrogen

Solution

Carbon dioxide extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen, or taking away the oxygen. Carbon dioxide is also very cold as it comes out of the extinguisher, so it cools the fuel as well.
Question 80
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A gas is evolved in a reaction, which gives the smell of rotten eggs. Which of the following gases is evolved in this reaction?

A
CO₂

B
CH₄

C
H₂S

D
NH₃

Solution

Hydrogen sulphide is a flammable, colourless gas with a characteristic odour of rotten eggs. It is commonly known as hydrosulphuric acid, sewer gas, and stink damp.
Question 81
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During skimming of milk, cream separates out. Which of the following statements is true about this process?

A
It is a physical but reversible change.

B
It is a chemical but reversible change.

C
It is a physical but irreversible change.

D
It is a chemical but irreversible change.

Solution

The process of centrifugation is used in dairies to separate cream from milk.
Centrifugation is a method for separating the suspended particles of a substance from a liquid in which the mixture is rotated at a high speed in a centrifuge machine. It is a physical and irreversible change.
Question 82
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Crude oil is a complex mixture of a large number of hydrocarbons. Name the process by which various hydrocarbons are separated.

A
Distillation

B
Fractional distillation

C
Condensation

D
Crystallisation

Solution

Crude oil can be separated into its fractions (mixtures of hydrocarbons with similar boiling points) by fractional distillation.
Fractional distillation is the separation of a mixture into its component parts, or fractions. Chemical compounds are separated by heating them to a temperature at which one or more fractions of the mixture will vaporise. It uses distillation to fractionate.
Question 83
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The heaviest isotope of hydrogen is tritium. How many particles are present in the nucleus of tritium?

A
1

B
2

C
3

D
4

Solution

Tritium () isotope of hydrogen has mass number 3 and atomic number 1.
The number of nucleons is equal to the mass number, i.e. 3.
Question 84
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What is the arrangement of electrons in Thomson's model of an atom?

A
The electrons are present in specific orbits.

B
The electrons are present at the centre of the positively charged sphere.

C
The electrons are embedded in a sphere of positive charge.

D
The electrons are present on the outer surface of the positively charged sphere.

Solution

In 1904, J. J. Thomson proposed that an atom is a sphere of positive charge and electrons are embedded in it just as seeds are embedded in a watermelon or as plums are embedded in a pudding. This model of atom is known as the "plum–pudding model".
Question 85
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Non-metals are poor conductors of electricity because of the absence of

A
electrons

B
free electrons

C
protons

D
neutrons

Solution

A non-metal atom has 4, 5, 6, 7 or 8 electrons in its valence shell. These electrons are not free. That is why non-metals do not conduct electric current. Protons and neutrons, which are present in the nucleus of every atom, have no role in the conduction of electricity.
Question 86
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Bauxite is an ore of

A
iron

B
aluminium

C
manganese

D
gold

Solution

Bauxite is a sedimentary rock with a relatively high aluminium content. It is the world's main source of aluminium.
Question 87
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With which of the following types of water are soaps not effective as a cleansing agent?

A
Hot water

B
Cold water

C
Hard water

D
Soft water

Solution

Soaps are not effective in hard water because soaps react with Ca⁺² and Mg⁺² ions present in hard water resulting in the formation of insoluble precipitate called scum. For example:
Question 88
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Which of the following gases is used for welding?

A
Ethene

B
Ethyne

C
Ethane

D
Ethyl alcohol

Solution

Ethyne, C₂H₂(g), is used in welding as it has adequate heat content and high flame temperature.
Question 89
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Cell wall of a plant is composed of

A
cellulose

B
lipids

C
proteins

D
chitin

Solution

A plant cell wall is composed of a polysaccharide known as cellulose. Cellulose is the most abundant organic polymer on Earth.
Question 90
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__________ is a non-membrane bound cell organelle.

A
Endoplasmic Reticulum

B
Nucleus

C
Centriole

D
Flagella

Solution

In cell biology, a centriole is a cylindrical organelle composed mainly of a protein called tubulin. Centrioles are found in most eukaryotic cells. It is a non-membrane bound organelle.
Question 91
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Which of the following are single-celled microorganisms?

a. Viruses
b. Bacteria
c. Protozoa
d. Fungi

A
Only a and b

B
Only b and d

C
Only a and c

D
Only b and c

Solution

Bacteria and protozoa are single-celled microorganisms.
Most fungi are multicellular such as mushrooms, moulds, and yeasts, which are eukaryotic heterotrophs that digest food outside of their bodies.
Viruses are neither unicellular nor multicellular; they are acellular organisms.
Question 92
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Which of the following is incorrect?

A
Micro-organisms are only unicellular.

B
Micro-organism used for making yoghurt is yeast.

C
Micro-organisms are used in nitrogen fixation.

D
Antibiotics are manufactured from some of the micro-organisms.

Solution

Micro-organisms may be unicellular or multicellular. Ameoba is an example of a unicellular organism; and volvox is a multicellular organism.
Question 93
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When a ray of light goes from an optically rarer medium to a denser medium, it

A
goes straight

B
bends away from the normal

C
bends towards the normal

D
reflects back

Solution

Travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium is like travelling from a fast medium to a slow medium. Such a light ray will bend towards the normal.
Question 94
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Which of the following devices converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?

A
Switch

B
Battery

C
Generator

D
Motor

Solution

A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy, while a motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. Both the devices work because of electromagnetic induction, which is when a voltage is induced by changing magnetic field.
Question 95
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The S.I. unit of force is

A
kelvin

B
newton

C
hertz

D
volts

Solution

The S.I. unit of force is newton. 1 N is the force needed to accelerate 1 kg mass at the rate of 1 m/s² in the direction of the applied force.
Question 96
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______ is a hollow, circular device containing small metal balls which are fitted around the moving part of a machine.

A
Wheel

B
Motor

C
Steering

D
Ball bearing

Solution

A ball bearing is a type of rolling-element bearing that uses balls to maintain the separation between the bearing races. The purpose of a ball bearing is to reduce rotational friction and support radial and axial loads.
Question 97
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The solar cells that are present in calculators and satellites are ______ cells or modules.

A
photosphere

B
insolation

C
photovoltaic

D
fusion

Solution

The solar cells that are present in calculators and satellites are photovoltaic cells or modules. Photovoltaic materials are those which convert light energy into electrical energy.
Question 98
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In which of the following is kinetic energy converted into electrical energy?

A
Tidal energy

B
Hydro energy

C
Wind energy

D
All of these

Solution

In all of the energies mentioned above, kinetic energy is converted to electrical energy.
Tidal energy converts the energy obtained from tides into electricity; hydro energy is power derived from the energy of falling water or fast running water; and in wind energy, air flows through wind turbines to provide the mechanical power to turn electric generators.
Question 99
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Which disease affects humans as well as animals?

A
Yellow vein mosaic

B
Citrus Canker

C
Rust of wheat

D
Anthrax

Solution

Anthrax is caused by a spore-forming bacterium. It mainly affects animals. Humans can become infected through contact with an infected animal or by inhaling spores.
Question 100
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A valuable tool for plant breeding and improvement of crop plants is

A
tissue culture

B
linkage

C
hybridisation

D
physiology

Solution

Genetic hybridisation is the process of interbreeding individuals from genetically distinct populations to produce a hybrid. A genetic hybrid would therefore carry two different alleles of the same gene. A valuable tool for plant breeding and improvement of crop plants is hybridisation.
Question 101
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How many members were there in the Simon Commission?

A
6

B
7

C
8

D
9

Solution

The commission consisted of seven members - four Conservatives, two Labourites, and one Liberal, under the joint chairmanship of the distinguished Liberal lawyer, Sir John Simon, and Clement Attlee.
Question 102
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Where was the first conference of Indian National Congress held?

A
Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, Bombay

B
Presidency college, Lahore

C
Vedant College, Calcutta

D
Anglo Oriental college, Aligarh

Solution

The first meeting was scheduled to be held in Poona, but due to a cholera outbreak it was shifted to Bombay. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee was the first president of the Congress; the first session was held from 28–31 December 1885, and was attended by 72 delegates.
Question 103
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The young Sikh warrior who in the early 18th century Punjab led the resistance against the Mughal empire was

A
Maharaja Ranjit Singh

B
Fateh Singh

C
Ajit Singh

D
Banda Singh Bahadur

Solution

Banda Singh Bahadur was a sikh warrior. He led the struggle against the Mughal Empire and sacked Mughal provincial capital Samana and established his authority in Punjab, but was captured by Mughals in 1715 and was tortured till death in 1716. He initiated many reforms for upliftment of poor and abolished lordship system of zamidar.
Question 104
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Who produced the first steam engine that was later improved and patented in 1781?

A
Newcomen

B
James Watt

C
Mathew Boulton

D
Richard Arkwright

Solution

Newcomen produced the first steam engine. This steam engine was later improved by James Watt and patented in 1781.
Question 105
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Which of the following battles established British rule in India?

A
Battle of Calicut

B
Battle of Panipat

C
Battle of Ramnagar

D
Battle of Plassey

Solution

The battle of Plassey was a decisive victory of the British East India Company over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies on 23 June 1757, under the leadership of Robert Clive. This is the correct answer as the battle of Plassey proved the British supremacy in India.
Question 106
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The First Carnatic War ended with the

A
Treaty of Pondicherry

B
Treaty of Paris

C
Treaty of Trichinapally

D
Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle

Solution

The First Carnatic War 1746-48 was a part of the War of the Austrian Succession that was fought between the kingdoms of Prussia, Spain, France, and Bavaria, Sweden etc. on one side and Habsburg Monarchy, England, Dutch Republic, Russia on the other side. This war finally ended with the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748).
Question 107
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What was the name of the party started by Bose after he left the Congress in 1940 due to disagreement with Gandhi ji?

A
Revolutionary Socialist Party

B
Congress Socialist Party

C
Radical Humanist Party

D
Forward Bloc

Solution

The All India Forward Bloc (AIFB) is a left-wing nationalist political party in India. It emerged as a faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939, led by Subhas Chandra Bose. The party re-established as an independent political party after the independence of India. It has its main stronghold in West Bengal.
Question 108
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The Revolt of 1857 started from

A
Delhi

B
Meerut

C
Jhansi

D
Kanpur

Solution

The Indian Rebellion of 1857 refers to a rebellion in India against the rule of the British East India Company, that ran from May 1857 to July 1859. The rebellion began as a mutiny of sepoys of the East India Company's army on 10^th May, 1857, in the cantonment of the town of Meerut and soon escalated into other mutinies and civilian rebellions largely in present-day Uttar Pradesh, northern Madhya Pradesh and the Delhi region.
Question 109
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The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was signed between the

A
Indian National League and the Gadar Party

B
Indian National Congress and the Muslim League

C
Muslim League and the Indian Association

D
English and the Azad Hind Fauj

Solution

Lucknow Pact (December 1916) was an agreement made by the Indian National Congress headed by Maratha leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah. It was adopted by the Congress at its Lucknow session on 29^th December and by the League on 31^st December, 1916.
Question 110
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The Doctrine of Lapse policy was introduced by:

A
Lord Wellesley

B
Lord Chelmsford

C
Lord Warren Hastings

D
Lord Dalhousie

Solution

Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse policy, according to which if the ruler of a protected state died without a natural heir, his state could not pass to an adopted heir. With the help of this doctrine, the British annexed the states of Satara, Nagpur, Jhansi, Kolhapur, etc.
Question 111
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The result of the Government of India Act of 1858 was:

A
Free trade

B
End of Company's rule

C
Compulsory and free primary education

D
Local self-government

Solution

The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed on 2^ndAugust, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.
Question 112
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Who was the founder of Ramakrishna Mission?

A
Ramakrishna Paramahamsa

B
Sharada Devi

C
Swami Bramhananda

D
Swami Vivekanand

Solution

Ramakrishna Mission was established by 1897 by his ardent disciple Swami Vivekananda with the twin objectives of working for one's own liberation and for the welfare of the world at large. Swami Vivekananda founded Ramakrishna Mission to propagate the teachings of his master.
Question 113
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What was the name of the party founded by M. N. Roy?

A
Revolutionary Socialist Party

B
Congress Socialist Party

C
Radical Democratic Party

D
Forward Block

Solution

Radical Democratic Party evolved out of the League of Radical Congressmen, which had been founded in 1939 by former Communist International leader M. N. Roy. Roy founded Radical Democratic Party in 1940 with the purpose of engaging India in the war to support the Allies. RDP also worked for Indian independence.
Question 114
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In which year did the Jallianwala Bagh massacre take place?

A
1891

B
1911

C
1919

D
1929

Solution

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13^th April, 1919, when a crowd of non-violent protesters, along with Baishakhi pilgrims, who had gathered in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab, were fired upon by troops of the British Indian Army under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer.
Question 115
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In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice President of the Executive Council was

A
Jawaharlal Nehru

B
Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

C
C. Rajagopalachari

D
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Solution

In the interim government formed in 1946, C. Rajagopalachari was the Head of the Department of Education and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Head of the Department of Food and Agriculture in the Executive Council. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Vice President of the Executive Council.
Question 116
2.67 / -0

Mountbatten Plan (1947) was also called:

A
March Plan

B
April Plan

C
June Plan

D
July Plan

Solution

The division of British India into two separate states was completed according to the Mountbatten Plan (also known as the 3 June Plan). This plan was announced on 3^rd June, 1947, by Lord Mountbatten, along with the date for independence, 15^th August, 1947.
Question 117
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There were _______ articles and ________ schedules in the Constitution when it came into force.

A
385, 5

B
305, 8

C
395, 8

D
395, 7

Solution

World's lengthiest written Constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules at the time of commencement.
Question 118
2.67 / -0

Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment deals with the welfare of

A
SC and OBC

B
religious minorities

C
women

D
All of these

Solution

Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is a Government of India ministry. It is responsible for welfare, social justice and empowerment of disadvantaged and marginalised sections of society, including Scheduled Castes (SC), Other Backward Classes (OBC), the disabled, the elderly, and the victims of drug abuse.
Question 119
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The United Nations has its headquarters in

A
Geneva

B
New York

C
Paris

D
London

Solution

The headquarters of the United Nations is a complex in New York City designed by Brazilian architect Oscar Niemeyer. The complex has served as the official headquarters of the United Nations since its completion in 1952.
Question 120
2.67 / -0

Which Foreign Trade Policy is in circulation in India?

A
2018-2023

B
2014-2019

C
2015-2020

D
2017-2022

Solution

The Government of India, Ministry of Commerce and Industry announced New Foreign Trade Policy on 1^st April, 2015, for the period 2015-2020. Earlier, this policy was known as Export Import (Exim) Policy. After five years, a Foreign Trade Policy needs amendments in general. It aims at developing export potential, improving export performance, encouraging foreign trade and creating favourable balance of payments position.
Question 121
2.67 / -0

The dam that is constructed with an objective of conservation of water with flood control is:

A
Bhakra Nangal Project

B
Chambal Project

C
Hirakud Project

D
Tungabhadra Project

Solution

The multi-purpose Hirakud dam is constructed across the river Mahanadi. The aim of this project is to control flood, conserve and supply water for irrigation purpose and hydro power generation.
Question 122
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Which among the following is correct about 'Tornado'?

A
A tornado has a very low pressure centre.

B
A tornado has a very high pressure centre.

C
A tornado is a very high ocean wave.

D
A tornado is a type of planetary wind.

Solution

A tornado is a rapidly rotating column of air that is in contact with both the surface of the Earth and a cumulonimbus cloud or, in rare cases, the base of a cumulus cloud. The centre of the tornado has low pressure, while high pressure exists on the outer edge.
Question 123
2.67 / -0

Which of the following is not a natural resource?

A
Mango tree

B
Snake

C
Wind

D
Wooden house

Solution

Natural resources are resources that exist without actions of humankind. In terms of the source of origin, natural resources can be divided into two categories: biotic and abiotic.
Wooden house can not be constructed without actions of humans, so it is not a natural resource.
Question 124
2.67 / -0

Nagaland mountains are becoming increasing barren mountains, mainly due to

A
insurgency

B
shifting cultivation

C
urbanisation

D
rapid population growth

Solution

The shifting cultivation in Nagaland state is described as an agricultural system where a farming community slashes secondary forests on a predetermined location, burns the slash and cultivates the land for a limited number of years. Nagaland mountains are becoming increasing barren mountains due to shifting cultivation.
Question 125
2.67 / -0

Which of the following is the oldest range of fold mountains in India?

A
The Himalayas

B
The Aravalli Range

C
The Eastern Ghats

D
The Vindhya Range

Solution

The Aravalli Range is the oldest range of fold mountains in India. The northern end of the range continues as isolated hills and rocky ridges into Haryana state, ending in Delhi.
Question 126
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Directions: In the following question, there is a certain relationship between the two terms given to the left of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists between the two terms to its right, out of which one is missing. Find the missing term from the given alternatives.

RSQ : UVT : : XYW : ?

A
AZB

B
BAZ

C
ZAB

D
ABZ

Solution

As,
R + 3 = U
S + 3 = V
Q + 3 = T
Similarly,
X + 3 = A
Y + 3 = B
W + 3 = Z
Hence, ABZ is the correct answer.
Question 127
2.67 / -0

Directions: In these questions pair of words/letters/numbers to the left/right of : : have certain relationship with each other. You are required to select the correct alternative so that similar relationship is established to the right/left of :

BELL : AFKM : : DOOR : ?

A
CNPQ

B
ENPS

C
EPNS

D
CPNS

Solution

In the first pair, we are following the pattern - 1 and + 1 alternately.
B - 1 = A; E + 1 = F; L - 1 = K and L + 1 = M
Similarly, in the second pair, we are following the pattern - 1 and + 1 alternately.
D - 1 = C; O + 1 = P; O - 1 = N and R + 1 = S
Hence, the correct answer is 'CPNS'.
Question 128
2.67 / -0

Directions: The following question consists of a pair of words which have a certain relationship with each other. Select one pair from the four given alternatives, which has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

Arc : Circle

A
Segment : Line

B
Fraction : Percentage

C
Pie : Slice

D
Number : Count

Solution

(Part of the whole) An arc is a part of a circle, similarly a segment is a part of a line.
Question 129
2.67 / -0

Directions: In the following question, there is a certain relationship between two given terms on one side of (: :). One term is given on the other side of (: :), while another term is to be found from the given alternatives having the same relationship with this term as the terms of the given pair bear. Choose the best alternative.

486 : 6 : : 774 : ___

A
14

B
15

C
6

D
7

Solution

The sequence is abc : .

Missing number = = 6
Question 130
2.67 / -0

Directions: There is some relationship between the pair of numbers to the left of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists between the two terms to the right, of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the given alternatives.

123 : 3 : : 426 : ___

A
16

B
6

C
17

D
7

Solution

First term in first pair is divisible by second term.
Similarly, by validating options, out of all options, 426 is divisible by only 6.
Question 131
2.67 / -0

Directions: In each of the following questions, a series is given with one or two terms missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given options that will complete the series.

2, 8, 18, 32, 50, __, 98, 128

A
88

B
72

C
80

D
65

Solution

The series follows the pattern:
n² + n², n ≥ 1

1² + 1² = 2
2² + 2² = 8
3² + 3² = 18
4² + 4² = 32
5² + 5² = 50
6² + 6² = 72
7² + 7² = 98
8² +8² = 128
Question 132
2.67 / -0

Directions: Complete the series.

BD, GI, LN, QS, ?

A
UV

B
UW

C
VX

D
VW

Solution

The first letters of the consecutive terms follow a sequence of +5 and the second letters also follow a sequence of +5. Hence, option (3) is correct.
Question 133
2.67 / -0

Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern in the given series.

128, 110, 90, ___, 44

A
56

B
68

C
70

D
72

Solution

This is a decreasing sequence with differences of - 18, - 20, - 22, - 24.
So, the missing number is 90 - 22 = 68.
Question 134
2.67 / -0

Directions: Find the missing letter out of the given choices after studying the relationship between the following letters.

F I O

A J K

E M ?

A
P

B
R

C
S

D
V

Solution

In this, we will use the positions of letters in alphabetical order (where A = 1, B = 2, ... Z = 26).
Now,
F(6) + I(9) = 6 + 9 = O(15)
A(1) + J(10) = 10 + 1 = K(11)
E(5) + M(13) = 5 + 13 = R(18)
Question 135
2.67 / -0

Which letter will replace the (?) question mark?

A
I

B
K

C
G

D
N

Solution

The numerical values of the letters in opposite segments of the circle add up to 10.
B(2) + H(8) = 10
C(3) + G(7) = 10
Therefore, the correct answer is G.
Hence, option 3 is correct.
Question 136
2.67 / -0

What number should come in place of the question mark to complete the third figure?

A
54

B
60

C
62

D
66

Solution

In each figure, number in the middle is obtained by adding the product of numbers in the top and left squares and product of numbers in the bottom and right squares.
For instance,
(4 × 3) + (2 × 5) = 12 + 10 = 22
and (1 × 2) + (7 × 6) = 2 + 42 = 44
Similarly, (8 × 7) + (2 × 5) = 56 + 10 = 66
Thus, the missing number is 66.
So, option 4 is correct.
Question 137
2.67 / -0

The position of Gursahib is 9^thfrom the right and the total number of students in the row is 29. What is his position from the left?

A
15^th

B
19^th

C
20^th

D
21^st

Solution

Total number of students = Gursahib's position from left + Gursahib's position from right - 1
29 = Gursahib's position from left + 9 - 1
Gursahib's position from left = 29 + 1 - 9 = 21^stHence, answer option 4 is correct.
Question 138
2.67 / -0

Amit is 24^th from the left end and 6^thfrom the right of Sumit. Anuj is 33^rd from the right end. Sumit is exactly between Amit and Anuj.

What is the total number of persons?

A
43

B
44

C
45

D
50

Solution

Amit's rank from left = 24
Sumit's rank from left = 24 - 6 = 18
Since there are 5 persons between Sumit and Amit, hence, there should also be 5 persons between Anuj and Sumit.
Therefore, Anuj's rank from left = 12.
Anuj is 33^rd from right. So total persons = 33 + 11 = 44
Question 139
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I start from my home and go 2 km straight. Then, I turn towards my right and go 1 km. I turn again towards my right and go 1 km. If now I am north-west from my home, then in which direction did I start in the beginning?

A
North

B
South

C
East

D
West

Solution

Clearly, the route is as shown in figure A.

It is given that the person is finally to the north-west of his house. Rotating figure A 90° anticlockwise, we obtain figure B satisfying the specified conditions.

It is evident from the figure that the direction of walking in the beginning was west.
Question 140
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Raj walked 30 metres towards north. Then, he turned to his right and walked 20 metres. He then turned to his right again and walked 30 metres. Finally, he turned to his left and walked 20 metres.

At what distance was he from the starting point?

A
20 metres

B
40 metres

C
60 metres

D
80 metres

Solution

Raj walked 30 metres towards north from the starting point. He turned to his right towards east and walked 20 metres. Then, he turned to his right again towards south and walked 30 metres. He finally turned to his left towards east and walked 20 metres. He is now to the east of his starting point.
Total distance between starting point and end point = 20 + 20 = 40 metres
Question 141
2.67 / -0

A can do of a piece of work in 8 days, while B can do of the same piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can both complete the work together?

A
9.6

B
10.5

C
11.2

D
8.6

Solution

A's work in 8 days =

A's work in 1 day =

B's work in 8 days =

B's work in 1 day =
1 day's work of A and B together =

So, the required number of days = = 9.6
Question 142
2.67 / -0

How many squares are there in the following figure?

A
10

B
16

C
14

D
19

Solution

According to the given figure, there are 19 squares.

ABNL, ACUR, BCIH, BDPN, BEVT, CDJI, CEQO, DEKJ, FGML, FHTR, GMNH, GIUS, HION, IJPO, IKVU, JPQK, LMSR, MNTS and NOUT.
So, there are 19 squares.
Question 143
2.67 / -0

Directions: In the following question, four figures are given. Three of them are similar in some way, but one figure is unlike the other three. Select the figure which does not belong to the group.

A
(a)

B
(b)

C
(c)

D
(d)

Solution

In all figures, triangle is in the middle, except in figure 'd'.
Question 144
2.67 / -0

Directions: In the following question, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

1. Repoint
2. Reptile
3. Repent
4. Repute
5. Report

A
3, 1, 5, 2, 4

B
3, 5, 1, 2, 4

C
5, 1, 4, 3, 2

D
5, 4, 1, 3, 2

Solution

The words are written according to the dictionary as given:
Repent, Repoint, Report, Reptile, Repute
Hence, option 1 is correct option.

Question 145

2.67 / -0

In a certain coding system, 'TEN' is coded as 256 and 'SIXTY' is coded as 19827. How will you code 'SIXTEEN' in this coding system?

1965255

1963225

1963556

1982556

Solution

Each letter has a different code as shown:

Letter	T	E	N
Code	2	5	6

Letter	S	I	X	T	Y
Code	1	9	8	2	7

SIXTEEN 1982556

Question 146
2.67 / -0

In a certain coding system, 'CAMEL' is coded as 25106, 'LION' is coded as 6793 and 'TIRE' is coded as 4780. How will you code 'ELITE' in this coding system?

A
06470

B
06740

C
04670

D
60476

Solution

C = 2, A = 5, M = 1, E = 0 and L = 6
L = 6, I = 7, O = 9 and N = 3
T = 4, I = 7, R = 8 and E = 0
Seeing the codes given for each letter, we get ELITE 06740
Question 147
2.67 / -0

Today is 1^st June. The day of the week is Sunday. If next year is a leap year, then what will be the day after 4 years on the same day?

A
Monday

B
Thursday

C
Saturday

D
Friday

Solution

As the next year is a leap year, so 1^st June in the next year will be on Tuesday. After 2 years, it will be a Wednesday. After 3 years, it will be a Thursday. After 4 years, it will be a Friday.
Question 148
2.67 / -0

How many days are there from 2^nd January, 1990 to 15^th March, 1990?

A
73

B
72

C
74

D
71

Solution

Number of days = 29 (Jan) + 28 (Feb) + 15(March) = 72.
Question 149
2.67 / -0

In the following question, from the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Suspensefulness

A
Sense

B
Fuels

C
Useful

D
Fullness

Solution

'Fullness' cannot be created using the letters of the word 'Suspensefulness'. This is because the word 'Fullness' has two L's, whereas the word 'Suspensefulness' has just one L.
Question 150
2.67 / -0

If U means ÷, V means ×, W means + and X means -, then what will be the result of 15U5W7X10W2.5V10?

A
20

B
25

C
30

D
35

Solution

15U5W7X10W2.5V10
According to question,
15 ÷ 5 + 7 - 10 + 2.5 × 10
According to BODMAS,
3 + 7 - 10 + 25
= 10 - 10 + 25
= 25

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AISSEE Class IX Mock Test - 2

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SHARING IS CARING

Question 1

9

7

8

6

Solution

Question 2

Solution

Question 3

Solution

Question 4

64 : 225

32 : 125

128 : 125

125 : 128

Solution

Question 5

12

24

28

32

Solution

Question 6

61

72

83

94

Solution

Question 7

11

9

14

15

Solution

Question 8

64

46

37

35

Solution

Question 9

43

63

88

90

Solution

Question 10

always odd

always even

a multiple of 3

a multiple of 6

Solution

Question 11

21 m

20 m

19 m

25 m

Solution

Question 12

5

7

6

8

Solution

Question 13

6061 mm3

6160 mm3

1450 mm3

1540 mm3

Solution

Question 14

10 m

6061 mm³

6160 mm³

1450 mm³

1540 mm³