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ICSE Class 10 History & Civics Question Exam 2024 : Most Important Question with Answers for Last-Minute Revision

ICSE Class 10 History & Civics Question Exam 2024 :  Most Important Question with Answers for Last-Minute Revision

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ICSE 10th exams are going on and your History & Civics is scheduled on February 26, 2024. You have only a few hours left for the History & Civics exam.

We've got you covered with the ultimate last-minute revision tool - the Most Important Revision Question! These specially curated notes are designed to give you a quick and effective revision session right before your exam. Whether you need to consolidate your knowledge or refresh your memory.

In this, every important question has been sorted and collected, which is very important for your paper, so that the student can score good marks in less time. Answers to all the questions are given together.

ICSE Class 10 History & Civics Exam 2024 : Most Important Questions Answers

Question 1. Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options.

(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.)

(i) An ordinance is called a temporary law. Which of the following statements correctly describes the same?

(a) Only the Cabinet can prepare an ordinance.
(b) It is issued when the Parliament is not functioning.
(c) If the Parliament does not approve it within six weeks it becomes inoperative.
(d) Only the President can promulgate an ordinance.

Ans: (c) If the Parliament does not approve it within six weeks it becomes inoperative.

(ii) Given below are details of a few Indian citizens.

Select the person who fulfils the eligibility criteria to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament.

(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z

Ans: (c) Y

(iii) The opposition feels that the ruling government does not have the majority in the Lok Sabha and wants to bring down the Government.

Which of these motions will the Leader of the Opposition move?

(a) Adjournment Motion
(b) No-confidence Motion
(c) Motion of Thanks
(d) Censure Motion

Ans: (b) No-confidence Motion

(iv) When the Supreme Court reviews any judgement made by it to remove an error, it falls under __________ jurisdiction.

(a) Advisory
(b) Revisory
(c) Original
(d) Appellate

Ans: (b) Revisory

(v) Identify the officials who form the electoral college for the Presidential elections in India.

P: elected members of Parliament
Q: nominated members of Parliament
R: elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
S: nominated members of State Legislative Councils

(a) P and Q
(b) R and S
(c) P and R
(d) Q and S

Ans: (c) P and R

(vi) Court of District Judge : Civil Cases : : Sessions Court : __________ Cases

(a) Advisory
(b) Criminal
(c) Constitutional
(d) Appellate

Ans: (b) Criminal

(vii) Read the two statements given below about the Civil Disobedience Movement and select the option that shows the correct relationship between (A) and (B).

(A) Gandhi's Civil Disobedience was based on engaging in dialogue and negotiation with the British.
(B) Gandhi believed that violence and aggression are counterproductive to achieve any goal.

(a) (B) contradicts (A).
(b) (B) is the reason for (A).
(c) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(d) (A) and (B) are independent of each other.

Ans: (b) (B) is the reason for (A).

(viii) The central government of a country named X has decided to enforce a law similar to the Vernacular Press Act, which was enacted by the British in India in 1878 to control and regulate the vernacular press.

Based on this information, who among the following is most likely to benefit from the enforcement of the law in X?

(a) its citizens
(b) the media industry
(c) the opposition party
(d) the ruling political party

Ans: (d) the ruling political party

(ix) In 1856, the British East India Company justified the annexation of Awadh, a princely state in northern India, on what grounds?

(a) acquire more land for British colonies
(b) stop the rebellion against the British
(c) punish the Nawab of Awadh for opposing British rule
(d) due to alleged misgovernance by the Nawab of Awadh

Ans: (d) due to alleged misgovernance by the Nawab of Awadh

(x)

Which of the following is an immediate impact of the above incident?

(a) It led to the supremacy of America
(b) It led to the First World War
(c) Austria and Hungary became two independent nations.
(d) Democracy replaced monarchy in many countries.

Ans: (b) It led to the First World War

(xi) Identify the odd one out of the following objectives:
(a) To promote among Muslims of India, support for the British government
(b) To remove any misconceptions regarding the intention of the government
(c) To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims
(d) To abolish the zamindari system

Ans: (d) To abolish the zamindari system

(xii) A college student named Roshni is doing a project on a prominent Indian leader whose core work revolved around Dalit rights.

Who is Roshni MOST LIKELY writing about?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) Pherozeshah Mehta
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Jyotiba Phule

Ans: (d) Jyotiba Phule

(xiii) __________ was the cause for the renewal of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
(a) Failure of the Second Round Table Conference
(b) Rowlatt Act
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Failure of the Cripps Mission

Ans: (a) Failure of the Second Round Table Conference

(xiv) The non-permanent members of the Security Council have a term of __________ years.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10

Ans: (a) 2

(xv) Which of the following policies of a dictator ruling over Country X is MOST aligned with the ideologies of Mussolini during his time in power?

(a) prioritising military expansion
(b) promoting environmental sustainability
(c) creating a healthcare program for all citizens equally
(d) offering financial aid to support the education of students from poor backgrounds

Ans: (a) prioritising military expansion

(xvi) Which of the following scenarios describes the Non-Alignment Policy (NAM)?
(a) A country forms a military alliance only with the United States.
(b) A country maintains relations with both factions during the Cold War and does not take sides.
(c) A country is part of a religious movement advocating non-violence
(d) A country aligns with Soviet Union and receives military aid

Ans: (c) A country is part of a religious movement advocating non-violence

Question 2. (i) Read the given news carefully.

Headline: Mysuru Lok Adalat settles 53-year-old civil case involving Kannada poets' kin. This case went on for a total of 53 years in various courts and involved 10 advocates and 40 witnesses.

Source: news18.com published on March 14, 2022

State any two advantages of Lok Adalat’s that can be deduced from the above news headline.

Ans: Two advantages of Lok Adalat’s that can be deduced from the news headline are:

1. Speedy Resolution: The Lok Adalat settled a 53-year-old civil case, which had been pending in various courts, indicating that Lok Adalat’s can provide a faster resolution compared to traditional courts.

2. Cost-Effective: The case involved 10 advocates and 40 witnesses over 53 years, which would have incurred significant legal costs. Lok Adalat’s are known for being cost-effective as they often lead to quicker settlements, potentially saving parties from prolonged legal expenses.

(ii) Imagine you were part of the German military in the year 1919, mention any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles which would impact you.

Ans: If I were part of the German military in 1919, two terms of the Treaty of Versailles that would impact me significantly would be the disarmament clause and the territorial losses imposed on Germany.

1. Disarmament: The treaty required Germany to disarm, limiting its army to 100,000 troops, and banning conscription, tanks, aircraft, and submarines. This would significantly reduce the military's strength and capabilities.

2. Territorial losses: Germany was forced to cede territory to neighboring countries, including Alsace-Lorraine to France, Eupen-Malmedy to Belgium, Northern Schleswig to Denmark, and significant portions of land to Poland and Czechoslovakia. This loss of territory would affect the military's strategic position and access to resources.

(iii) Give two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress.

Ans: Contributions towards India’s freedom movement by Subhash Chandra Bose were:

  • In an effort to support the Nationalist Movement, he organized youth and student organizations around the nation.
  • In 1939, he organized the socialist left-wing parties under the "Forward Bloc" banner.
  • Subhas Chandra Bose rose to prominence as the head of the national movement's radical wing and as a national hero among young people.
  • German and Japanese support was given to him in his efforts to end British rule in India.

(iv) Mention any two methods of the Assertive Nationalists.

Ans: (i) Freedom is the birth right of every Indian.

(ii) Supported the swadeshi goods against the use of imported goods.

(v) Mention any two objectives of the League of Nations.

Ans: (i) To preserve peace and security in the world.

(ii) To settle international conflicts in a peaceful manner.

(iii) To promote just and honorable relations among the nations of the world.

(iv) To force its members not to resort to war.

(vi) Name the two alliances formed in Europe before the beginning of the First World War.

Ans: Two alliances formed in Europe before the beginning of The First World War were:

  • Triple Alliance: Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy
  • Triple Entente: Great Britain, France and Russia

Question 3. The Union Legislature of India is not only the lawmaking body, but the center of all democratic political process. With reference to the Parliament, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three circumstances under which the Lok Sabha can make laws on a subject in the State list.

Ans: The Parliament can make laws on the subjects mentioned in the State List in the following circumstances:

1. According to Article 249 of Constitution of India, when a resolution is passed by the Rajya Sabha by two-thirds majority making it lawful for the Parliament to legislate on a subject mentioned in the State List in national interest.

2. According to Article 250 of Constitution of India, when a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India on any of the matters stated in the State List.

3. According to Article 252 of Constitution of India, when two or more States give their consent and pass resolutions for the same in their respective Legislatures to enable the Parliament to make a law on any matter listed in the State List. Any such law will be applicable to only those States which have passed such resolution, not to all states.

(ii) The Speaker plays a key role in maintaining order and ensuring the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha. Mention any four functions of the Speaker to support this statement.

Ans: Three Financial Powers of the Union Parliament are:

(i) It passes the Union Budget.

(ii) It can make supplementary grants if the amount authorised is insufficient.

(iii) If the Budget is not Passed before April 1, then there would be no money for the executive to spend. To provide money to the executive for day-to-day expenditure till the passage of budget a “Vote on Account” is passed.

Question 4. The President is the nominal head of the executive, the first citizen of the country, as well as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three qualifications required for a person to be nominated to the post of the President.

Ans: To be nominated for the post of President, a person must:

  • Be a citizen of India.
  • Have completed 35 years of age.
  • Be eligible to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha.

(ii) Mention any three discretionary powers of the President.

Ans: Two Discretionary powers of the President are:

(i) The President has to be informed of all important decision and deliberations of the Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister is bound to provide whatever information the President seeks.

(ii) The President cannot dismiss the Prime Minister in a Parliamentary System, as long as he enjoys a majority. But in case no single party gets a majority, then the President can write to the person who can govern with a majority support to form a Coalition Government which would be stable.

(iii) Veto Power: The President can withhold his or her assent to a bill passed by Parliament, sending it back for reconsideration. This power is known as the veto power.

(iii) Describe the procedure of impeachment of the President.

Ans: The process of removing the President from the office is called Impeachment.

1. The motion for impeachment can be introduced in either house of the parliament supported by ¼ members.

2. An advance notice of 14 days should be given before the debate and discussion.

3. If ⅔ members vote in favour of the motion after the debates and discussions, then the President has to step down from the post.

Question 5. The Supreme Court of India is the supreme judicial authority and the highest court of the Republic of India. It is the final court of appeal for all civil and criminal cases. With reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:

(i) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?

Mention any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Ans: President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.

Qualifications of Judge of the Supreme Court:

1. He should be a citizen of India. The retirement age of the Supreme Court Judge is 65 years.

2. He should have served as a High Court Judge in India for minimum 5 years.

3. He should have an experience of at least 10 years as an advocate in any of the Indian High Courts.

4. He should be a distinguished Judge or a well-known jurist in the opinion of the President of India.

(ii) Explain the term Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with any two examples.

(iii) Name any four writs issued by the Supreme Court.

Ans: Four writs that can be issued by the Supreme Court of India are:

(i) Habeas Corpus: This writ is used to bring a person who has been illegally detained or imprisoned before the court to determine if the detention is lawful.

(ii) Mandamus: This writ is issued to a public official or body to compel them to perform a duty that they are legally obligated to perform.

(iii) Prohibition: This writ is issued by a higher court to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice.

(iv) Certiorari: This writ is issued to quash the order of an inferior court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority when it has exceeded its jurisdiction or acted illegally.

These writs are important tools for the protection of fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.

Question 6. The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was a major uprising against the rule of the British East India Company, which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three administrative changes made in India as a consequence of the Revolt.

Ans: The Revolt of 1857, also known as the First War of Independence, led to several administrative changes in India. Here are three significant ones:

1. End of the East India Company's Rule: The British government took direct control of India from the East India Company. The Government of India Act 1858 transferred the powers of the Company to the British Crown, marking the beginning of the British Raj.

2. Reorganization of the Indian Army: The Indian Army was reorganized to prevent future uprisings. The proportion of Indian soldiers in the army was reduced, and efforts were made to recruit more soldiers from among the martial races considered more loyal to the British.

3. Changes in Administrative Policies: The British government adopted a more cautious and less aggressive policy towards Indian princely states. They also implemented various reforms to address the social, economic, and administrative grievances that had contributed to the uprising.

These changes marked a significant shift in British policy towards India and had long-lasting effects on the administration of the country.

(ii) How did the failure of this Revolt impact the Mughals and the Peshwas?

Ans: The failure of the Revolt of 1857 had significant impacts on both the Mughal Empire and the Peshwas:

1. Mughal Empire: The Revolt marked the end of the Mughal Empire's direct rule over India. The last Mughal emperor, Bahadur Shah II, was deposed and exiled to Rangoon (Yangon) by the British, effectively ending the dynasty's political significance. The British East India Company took over administrative control of India, leading to the establishment of the British Raj.

2. Peshwas: By the time of the Revolt, the Peshwas had already lost much of their power and influence. The failure of the Revolt further weakened their position, and they were eventually abolished as a political institution by the British. The Peshwa authority was completely extinguished, and the Maratha Empire ceased to exist as a significant political entity.

In summary, the failure of the Revolt of 1857 resulted in the demise of the Mughal Empire as a ruling power and further marginalized the already weakened Peshwas, contributing to the consolidation of British control over India.

(iii) Mention any four changes made in the army after the Revolt.

Ans: After the Revolt of 1857 in India, the British made several changes in the army to ensure such a large-scale rebellion did not occur again. Some of the key changes were:

1. Composition of the Army: The British reorganized the composition of the army to reduce the proportion of Indian soldiers (sepoys) and increase the number of British troops. This was aimed at minimizing the chances of another revolt.

2. Sepoy Recruitment Policies: The British also revised the recruitment policies for sepoys. They implemented stricter screening processes to ensure loyalty to the British Crown and minimized the influence of religious and cultural factors that could potentially lead to discontent.

3. Training and Discipline: There was a significant emphasis on training and discipline within the army. British officers were given more authority, and harsh disciplinary measures were imposed to deter any signs of insubordination.

4. Communication and Intelligence: Improved communication and intelligence gathering were prioritized to monitor the activities and sentiments within the army. This included better surveillance and monitoring of barracks and soldiers' activities.

Question 7. Nationalism refers to the feeling of oneness that emerges when people consider themselves as one nation. With reference to the growth of nationalism, answer the following:

(i) Name the founder of the Indian National Congress. Mention any two of its objectives.

Ans: The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded by Allan Octavian Hume, Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee, Monomohun Ghose, and William Wedderburn in 1885. Two of its key objectives were to achieve self-government and to promote unity among the various communities of India.

(ii) How did the press contribute to the growth of nationalism?

(iii) Mention any four repressive policies of Lord Lytton.

Ans: Lord Lytton, who was the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880, implemented several repressive policies that were deeply unpopular among the Indian population. Some of these policies included:

1. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878: This act imposed severe restrictions on the Indian press, especially the vernacular press, aiming to suppress criticism of the British government. It required newspapers to obtain a license and furnish a security deposit, leading to the closure of many Indian-owned newspapers.

2. The Arms Act of 1878: This act made it mandatory for Indians to obtain a license for the possession of arms, thereby restricting their ability to arm themselves and potentially resist British rule.

3. The Reduction of the Age Limit for the Civil Services Examination: In 1877, Lord Lytton reduced the age limit for the Indian Civil Services Examination, effectively barring many Indians from entering the prestigious civil services, which were dominated by the British.

4. The Illiberal Diplomacy of the Second Afghan War (1878-1880): During this war, Lord Lytton's aggressive policies led to the Second Anglo-Afghan War. The harsh terms imposed on Afghanistan after its defeat, including the Treaty of Gandamak in 1879, were seen as repressive and contributed to growing anti-British sentiments in India.

Question 8. Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow.

The movement had generated worldwide publicity, and British were looking for a way to end it. Gandhiji was released from custody in January 1931, and the two men began negotiating the terms of the pact. For many conservatives in England, the meetings and talks seemed unacceptable. They thought it was inappropriate for the Viceroy, who was the representative of the British Monarch, to receive their arch-enemy. Gandhiji was

authorised by the then President of the Congress, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, to negotiate with the Viceroy. He advised the nation to wait, watch, pray and hope for a better prospect for India. He was full of admiration for the people, their heroic struggle and hard suffering.

(i) Who was the Viceroy who negotiated with Gandhiji? Name any two causes of the movement being discussed above.

Ans: The Gandhi–Irwin Pact was a political agreement signed by Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, Viceroy of India, on 5 March 1931 before the Second Round Table Conference in London.

(ii) Mention any three impacts of this movement.

Ans: Withdrawal of all ordinances that curbed the activities of the Congress. Withdrawal of all prosecutions except those involving violent crimes. Release of those who were arrested for taking part in the civil disobedience movement. Removal of the salt tax.

(iii) As a consequence of this meeting, a pact was signed.

Mention any four conditions that the Congress and the British Government agreed to according to this pact.

Ans: (1) Prohibit intoxicants, (2) Change the ratio between the rupee and the sterling, (3) Reduce the rate of land revenue, (4) Abolition of salt tax, (5) Reduce the military expenditure, (6) Reduce expenditure on civil administration, (7) Impose custom duty on foreign cloth, (8) Accept the Postal Reservation.

Question 9. Look at the picture given and answer the following questions:

(i) Identify the leader in the above picture. Mention any two of his ideologies.

Ans: Leader in the above picture is Adolf Hitler ideology was built around a philosophically authoritarian, anti-Marxist, antisemitic and anti-democratic worldview.

(ii) Mention any three causes for his rise to power.

Ans: During the 1920s, Hitler and the Nazis ran on a platform consisting of anti-communism, antisemitism, and ultranationalism. Nazi party leaders vociferously criticized the ruling democratic government and the Treaty of Versailles, while proselytizing their desire to turn Germany into a world power.

(iii) What was the immediate cause of the Second World War? Mention any three reasons given by this leader to justify his action.

Ans: The immediate precipitating event was the invasion of Poland by Nazi Germany on September 1, 1939, and the subsequent declarations of war on Germany made by Britain and France, but many other prior events have been suggested as ultimate causes.

Question 10. The United Nations Organisation aims to maintain international peace. With reference to its organs and agencies, answer the following:

(i) What is the composition of the International Court of Justice?

Ans: The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately.

(ii) Mention any three functions of the Security Council.

Ans:

  • to maintain international peace and security in accordance with the principles and purposes of the United Nations;
  • to investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction;
  • to recommend methods of adjusting such disputes or the terms of settlement;

(iii) Give the full form of UNICEF. Mention any three of its functions.

Ans: Full name UNICEF the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund

Three of its functions

(i) children on the move.
(ii) violence against children.
(iii) prevention of female genital mutilation.
(iv) prevention of child marriage

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