CBSE 10th Mid Term/Half Yearly Exam 2024-25 : Social Science Most Important Questions with Answers

As the CBSE 10th Mid Term and Half Yearly Exams approach for the 2024-25 academic year, students are gearing up to tackle their Social Science paper. To help you prepare effectively, we’ve compiled a list of the most important questions and their answers. This guide will aid in understanding key concepts and boost your confidence for the exam.

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Most Important Social Science Questions for Mid-Term Exam 2024-25

Q1: Identify the person who was proclaimed as the emperor of Germany in 1871.

(a) Otto Von Bismarck

(b) Victor Emmanuel II

(c) Count Cavour

(d) Kaiser William I

Ans. (d) Kaiser William I

Q2: Artists of the time of the French Revolution personified _______ as a female figure.

(a) Socialism

(b) Liberty

(c) Autocracy

(d) Monarchy

Ans. (b) Liberty

Q3: Match the Column I with Column II and Choose the Correct Option:

Column I	Column II
A. Statue of Liberty	1. Shattered remains of absolutist institutions
B. Foreground	2. Torch of Enlightenment and charter of rights of man
C. Saints and Angels	3. Democratic and Social Republics
D. Frederic Sorrieu’s Utopian Vision	4. Blessing the scene

Options : -

(a) A2, B1, C4, D3

(b) A2, B4, C4, D1

(c) A1, B2, C4, D3

(d) A4, B1, C3, D2

Ans. (a) A2, B1, C4, D3

Q4: Rearrange the following events chronologically to understand the Nationalist struggle in India:

I. Lahore Session of the Congress .

II. Swaraj Party was formed .

III. Gandhiji concluded the Poona Pact .

IV. The beginning of Civil Disobedience Movement.

Options : -

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) II, IV, I, III

(c) II, I, IV, III

(d) IV, III, II, I

Ans. (c) II, I, IV, III

👉 CBSE Class 10 Study Materials

CBSE Class 10 Syllabus 2024-25	NCERT Solutions For Class 10
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers	CBSE Class 10 Books
CBSE Class 10 Full Study Material	CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper

Q5: The main cause for land degradation in Jharkhand is:

(a) Urbanisation

(b) Over-irrigation

(c) Mining

(d) Overgrazing

Ans. (c) Mining

Q6: Choose the correct pair

(a) Alluvial soil - Poor in phosphoric content

(b) Black soil - made up of lava flows

(c) Arid soil - diffusion of iron in crystalline rock

(d) Laterite soil - salt content is high

Ans. (b) Black soil - made up of lava flows

Q7: Fill in the blank:

The Mundas and the Santhals of _____________ region worship Mahua and Kadamba trees.

(a) Baghelkhand

(b) Chota Nagpur

(c) Kutch

(d) Bundelkhand

Ans. (b) Chota Nagpur

Q8: There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:

Assertion [A] : One basic principle of democracy is that people are the source of all political power.

Reason [R] : In modern democracies power sharing arrangements can take many forms.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 

Q9: Which of the following options is described in the given cartoon ?

(a) Mid day meal scheme

(b) Relationship between center and state

(c) Relationship between people and state governments

(d) Demand for reservation

Ans. (b) Relationship between center and state

Q10: Consider the following statements about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka and choose the correct option:

[1]. Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%).

[2]. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.

[3]. There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.

[4]. Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or Muslims and most of the Tamil-speaking are Buddhists.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3                   

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4                   

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (a) 1, 2 and 3 

Q11: There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed. The features of one of the routes have been listed below:

A: Large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government.

B: The Central government tends to be more powerful vis a vis the states.

C: Constituent states have unequal power.

Identify the route by considering the above statements :

(a) Coming together federation

(b) Holding together federation

(c) Decentralisation

(d) Centralisation

Ans. (b) Holding together federation

Q12: Select the most appropriate option from the following to complete the table.

Options : -

(a) a-Police, b-Education, c- Computer Software

(b) a-Education, b-Forest, c-Information Technology

(c) a-Foreign Affairs, b-Trade Union, c-Software

(d) a-Banking, b-Succession, c-ATM

Ans. (a) a-Police, b-Education, c- Computer Software

Q13: Identify the country that does NOT share border with Belgium:

(a) Netherlands

(b) Luxembourg

(c) Poland

(d) Germany

Ans. (c) Poland

Q14: There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:

Assertion (A) : HDI compares countries on the basis of educational level, health status and per capita income.

Reason (R) : Life expectancy measures the health status of a country.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is correct but R is wrong.

(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Ans. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 

Q15: Assume there are four families in the country. The average per capita income of these families is ₹5000. If the income of three families is ₹4000 , ₹7000 and ₹3000 respectively, calculate is the income of the fourth family?

(a) ₹7500

(b) ₹3000

(c) ₹2000

(d) ₹6000

Ans. (d) ₹6000

Q16: Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer.

Statement 1: India is importing oil from abroad

Statement 2: India does not have enough stock of oil of its own.

(a) Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.

(b) Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct

(c) Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect

(d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct

Ans. (d) Both (i) & (ii) are correct

Q17: Identify which of the following example does NOT fall under the unorganized sector?

(a) A farmer irrigating his field.

(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.

(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.

(d) A handloom weaver working in her loom.

Ans. (c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.

Q18: NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act of 2005) has guaranteed ………. days of employment in a year in many districts of India.

(a) 200 days

(b) 100 days

(c) 30 days

(d) 60 days

Ans. (b) 100 days

Q19: According to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India was –

• Primary Sector - 44%
• Secondary Sector - 25%
• Tertiary Sector - 31%

Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in the Primary Sector high? Select the most suitable option from the following:

(a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed

(b) Low job opportunities in Secondary Sector

(c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors

(d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector

Ans. (a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed

Q20: A man is employed on a food processing farm where he has to do a lot of manual work. His wife and daughter also help him in his work on the farm every day. Which type of employment is this an example?

(a) Underemployment

(b) Seasonal employment

(c) Over employment

(d) Cyclical employment

Ans. (a) Underemployment

Q21: The Constitution of India:

(a) Divided powers between center and states in three lists.

(b) Divided powers between center and states in two lists.

(c) Listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.

(d) Specified the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the center.

Ans. (a) Divided powers between center and states in three lists.

Q22: In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the Statements and chose the correct option

Assertion (A): High average income is not an indicator of the overall development of a country.

Reason (R): Average income does not indicate the level of education, health, and other public facilities.

(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q23: When running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels, they lead to:

(a) sheet erosion

(b) Gully erosion

(c) Deforestation

(d) Afforestation

Ans. (b) Gully erosion

Q24: Khilafat committee was formed in 1919 in the city of :

(a) Amritsar

(b) Calcutta

(c) Lucknow

(d) Bombay

Ans. (d) Bombay

Q25. Consider the following statements on Power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below.

I. It is the very spirt of democracy.

II. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.

III. It brings transparency in the governance

IV. It brings socio-political competition among parties.

Options : -

(a) I, II & III                 

(b) II, III & IV

(c) I, III & IV                 

(d) I, II & IV

Ans. (a) I, II & III    

Q26: Groundwater overuse in India is how much

(a) one-fifth of country

(b) one-fourth of country

(c) one-third of country

(d) two-fifth of country

Ans. (c) one-third of country

Q27: The word 'ethnic' signifies:

(a) Different religions.

(b) Social division on shared culture.

(c) A violent conflict between opposite groups

(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Social division on shared culture.

Q28: GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product. What does it show? Pick up the correct statement given below:

(a) It shows how big the economy of a country is in a given year in terms of its total output.

(b) It shows what the total product of a country in a given year without counting the country's total resources.

(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in a particular year.

(d) It shows the total value of trade transactions of country in a particular year.

Ans. (a) It shows how big the economy of a country is in a given year in terms of its total output.

Q29: A sense of collective identity in which people and rulers of a territorial region come together to develop a sense of common identity and shared history is called:

(a) Conservative Regime

(b) Nation state

(c) Military Dictatorship

(d) Absolute Monarchy

Ans. (b) Nation state

Q30: “When France sneezes rest of Europe catches cold” Who said this line?

(a) Duke Metternich

(b) Fredrich Williams

(c) Kaiser William

(d) Cavour

Ans. (a) Duke Metternich

Q31: Read the statements and mark the correct option.

Assertion (A): Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society should be preserve.

Reason (R): Zollverein was formed to preserve conservation.

(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A is correct, but R is not correct.

(c) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) Both A and R are wrong

Ans. (b) A is correct, but R is not correct.

Q32: The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words:

'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was:

(a) The Russian Revolution

(b) The French Revolution

(c) The American Revolution

(d) India's First War of Independence

Ans. (b) The French Revolution

Q33: For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person is divided by the:

(a) Square of the height

(b) Square of the weight

(c) Square root of the height

(d) Square of the sum of height and weight

Ans. (a) Square of the height

Q34: The development that should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations is known as:

(a) sustainable development

(b) renewable development

(c) economic development

(d) human development

Ans. (a) sustainable development

Q35: The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of:

(a) Employment conditions

(b) The nature of economic activities

(c) Number of workers employed

(d) Ownership of enterprises

Ans. (d) Ownership of enterprises

Q36: Assertion (A): Multi-purpose projects and large dams have also been the cause of many social movements like the 'Narmada Bachao Andolan' and the 'Tehri dam Andolan' etc.

Reason (R): Resistance to these projects has primarily been due to the large scale displacement of local communities.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true

Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Q37: The value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is called as:

(a) Gross Domestic Product

(b) Net Domestic Product

(c) National Product

(d) Production of Tertiary Sector

Ans. (a) Gross Domestic Product

Q38: The goods which are used as raw material for further production of other goods or for resale in the same year  are called

(a) final goods

(b) intermediate goods

(c) median goods

(d) sample goods

Ans. (b) intermediate goods

Q39: The ________alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List. .

(a) Central government

(b) state government

(c) Supreme court

(d) Mayor

Ans. (a) Central government

Q40: In a 'Holding together federation’:

a. A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government.

b. The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.

c. All the constituent states usually have equal powers.

d. Constituent states have unequal powers.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) A, B, C and D        

(b) A and D

(c) B and C               

(d) A, B and D

Ans. (d) A, B and D

Q41: The Community Government signifies:

(a) The powers of government regarding community development.

(b) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community.

(c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.

(d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard the interest of a particular community.

Ans. (c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.

Q42: The political head of a Municipal Corporation is called.

(a) President

(b) Pradhan

(c) Governor

(d) Mayor

Ans. (d) Mayor

Q43: System of 'checks and balances' means:

(a) distribution of powers.

(b) redistribution of powers.

(c) federal division of powers.

(d) check on exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government

Ans. (a) distribution of powers.

Q44: Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?

(a) English

(b) German

(c) French

(d) Dutch

Ans. (d) Dutch

Q45: Who elects the community government in Belgium?

(a) People belonging to one language community only.

(b) By the leader of Belgium.

(c) The citizens of the whole country.

(d) The community leaders of Belgium.

Ans. (a) People belonging to one language community only.

Q46: Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.

Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

A. The place of Satyagraha Movement of indigo planters.

B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke Salt Law.

A	B
(a) Champaran,	Amritsar
(b) Champaran,	Dandi
(c) Kheda,	Dandi
(d) Ahemdabad,	Gujrat

 

Ans. (b) Champaran, Dandi

Q47: Power sharing is desirable because it helps:

(a) To reduce possibilities of conflicts

(b) To increase pressure on government.

(c) To generate awareness among people.

(d) To increase percentage of voters.

Ans. (a) To reduce possibilities of conflicts

Q48: Aaron gave his friends three clues about a type of crop.

(i) It is a crop which is used both as food and fodder.

(ii) It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil.

(iii) In some states like Bihar, it is grown in rabi season also.

Which crop is being referred to by Aaron?

(a) Rice                                       

(b) Millets

(c) Cotton                                     

(d) Maize

Ans. (d) Maize

Q49: Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power?

(a) Power sharing between different states.

(b) Power sharing between different organs of the government.

(c) Power sharing between different levels of the government.

(d) Power sharing between different political parties.

Ans. (b) Power sharing between different organs of the government.

Q50: What causes soil erosion?

(a) Degradation or denudation of soil cover

(b) Human activities like deforestation, construction and mining

(c) Natural forces like wind, glacier and running water

(d) Both (b) and (c)

Ans. (d) Both (b) and (c)