CBSE 10th Social Science Exam 2025: Top 50 MCQs with Answers for Quick Revision (Feb 25)

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CBSE 10th exams are underway and your CBSE 10th Social Science exam is scheduled on 25th Feb, 2025. You have just a few days left for CBSE 10th Social Science exam.

We have prepared top 50 MCQs with answers covering all the important topics of CBSE Class 10 Social Science syllabus.

Make sure to solve these MCQs and refer to the solutions to ensure that you are well prepared to score high in CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam 2025.

CBSE 10th Social Science 2025: Top 50 MCQs with Answers

Q1 What was the proclaimed mission for the French revolutionaries, declaring the destiny of the French people?

(a). to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism and assist other European nations in becoming independent.
(b). to establish a unified nation-state.
(c). to transition to a democratic form of government.
(d). to achieve sovereignty.

ANS: Option: A

Q2 Why was the former royal standard replaced with the new French flag, the tri color, during the French Revolution in 1789?

(a) to inspire loyalty towards the nation rather than a king
(b) to demonstrate the superiority of the French flag compared to others
(c) to endorse the businessmen who crafted the flag to spearhead the revolution
(d) to incite the populace to declare war against Holland and Switzerland in 1790.

ANS: Option: A

Q3 Which of the following is incorrect about the Frankfurt Parliament, 18 May 1848?

(a) They decided to vote for an all-German National Assembly.
(b) Political associations whose members were middle-class professionals, businessmen, and prosperous artisans.
(c) 834 elected representatives marched in a festive procession to take their places in the Frankfurt parliament.
(d) They drafted a constitution for a German nation to be headed by a monarchy.

ANS: Option: b

Q4. Arrange the following statements in chronological order based on the events that shaped the Non-cooperation movement.

i. General Dyer opened fire at the large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh.
ii. "Forced recruitment" carried out by the British government and the economic hardships faced by the people during the First World War.
iii. The defeat of the Ottoman Emperor of Turkey led to the formation of the Khilafat movement.
iv. Gandhiji launched a nationwide satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act.

Options:
a. iv, iii, ii, i
b. ii, i, iv, iii
c. i, iv, iii, ii
d. i, ii, iii, iv

ANS: Option: c

Q5 What significant difference had emerged between Congress and the Muslim League in the late 1920s?

(a). Communal hatred
(b). Muslims perceived themselves as a minority
(c). The issue of representation of Muslims in the future elected assemblies
(d). Hindus disregarded the Muslims

ANS: Option: c

Q6 Identify the incorrect statement regarding how the Non-cooperation Movement affected the economic sphere.

(a) Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed, and foreign cloth was burnt.
(b) The import of foreign cloth doubled between 1921 and 1922. Its value dropped from 7102 crore to 757 crore.
(c) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing Indian ones.
(d) The production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.

ANS: Option: b

Q7. Identify the correct option that describes the act given below.

i. The Act was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council.
ii. It gave power to the government to repress political activities.
iii. It empowered the government to detain political prisoners without trial.

Options:
(a). Rowlatt Act
(b). Vernacular Press Act
(c). Government of India Act
(d). Inland Emigration Act

ANS: Option: a

Q8. Identify the false statement that the movement started with middle-class participation in the cities.

(a) Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges.
(b) Headmasters and teachers resigned.
(c) Lawyers gave up their legal practices.
(d) The council elections were boycotted in all the provinces.

ANS: Option: d

Q9 Identify the incorrect statement(s) among the following:

(a) Chinese pottery travelled through the silk route.
(b) Textiles and spices travelled from India and Southeast Asia.
(c) Gold and silver flowed from Europe to Asia.
(d) Only silk travelled through the silk route.

ANS: Option: d

Q10. Arrange the following incidents in sequence:

A. A shift from hand to mechanical printing.
B. Gutenberg perfected the system by 1448.
C. The hearing people became a reading people.
D. Printed material was orally transmitted.

(a) ABCD
(b) BDCA
(c) BACD
(d) BADC

ANS: Option: c

Q11. What changes occurred in the seventeenth century as urban culture bloomed in China?

i. Print was no longer used just by scholar-official
ii. Merchants used print in their everyday life, as they collected trade information.
iii. New readership preferred fictional narratives, poetry, autobiographies, anthologies of literary masterpieces, and romantic plays.
iv. Women began publishing their poetry and plays. Wives of scholar-officials published their works, and courtesans wrote about their lives.

(a). i only
(b). i and ii
(c). All of the above
(d). None of the above

ANS: Option: c

Q12 What described itself as a commercial paper open to all but influenced by none?

(a) Kesari
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Bible
(d) Ninety-Five Theses

ANS: Option: b

Q13 Consider the statements given below and choose the correct answer Statement I: Western printing techniques and mechanical press were imported in the late 19th Century as Western powers established their outposts in China. Statement II: Beijing became the hub of the new print culture, catering to Western-style schools.

a. Statement (i) is correct and (ii) is incorrect.
b. Statement (i) is incorrect and (ii) is correct
c. Both (i) & (ii) are incorrect
d. Both (i) & (ii) are correct

ANS: Option: a

👉 CBSE Class 10 Study Materials

CBSE Class 10 Syllabus 2024-25	NCERT Solutions For Class 10
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers	CBSE Class 10 Books
CBSE Class 10 Full Study Material	CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper

Q14 Identify the soil with the help of following features. COMPETENCY [T-III

I. It develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry season.
II. It is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rain.
III. It is mostly deep to very deep, acidic (pH 6.0).

(a) Forest soil
(b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Laterite

ANS: Option: d

Q15 Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?

(i) Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife
(ii) Prohibiting the visit of public inte forest area
(iii) Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
(iv) Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests

Options:

(a) Statements i and ii are correct.
(c) Statement ii is correct.
(b) Statements ii, iii & iv are correct
(d) Statements i, iii & iv are correct

ANS: Option: d

Q16 Which one of the following is not a direct outcome of environmenta destruction?

(a) Biological loss
(b) Loss of cultural diversity
(c) Severe droughts
(d) River Valley Projects

ANS: Option: c

Q17 Match the Column-A with Column-B and choose the correct option: IT-I

Ans: Option: iii

Q18. Match the following from column I and column II and select the correct option.

(a) (A)-(iii), (B) (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B) - (iv), (C)(ii), (D) - (i)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)(ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(d) (A)-(i), (B)(ii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)

ANS: Option: c

Q19 Match the following and select the correct option.

(a) (A)-(i), (B)- (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii)
(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C) (iv), (D) - (ii)
(d) (A)(ii), (B) – (iv), (C) – (i), (D) – (iii)

ANS: Option: a

Q20 Identify the crop with the help of the following information: COMPETENCY [T-II

I: Our country is the second largest producer of this crop in the world after China.
II: It is a kharif crop which requires high temperature (above 25°C).
III: High humidity with annual rainfall above 100 cm.

(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Rice
(d) Sugarcane

ANS: Option: c

Q21 Match the following: COMPETENCY [T-I

(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(c) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B
(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D

ANS: Option: c

Q22 Choose the correct increasing order of the quality of types of coals: COMPETENCY [T-III

(a) Lignite < Bituminous < Anthracite
(b) Lignite < Anthracite < Bituminous
(c) Anthracite < Bituminous < Lignite
(d) Anthracite < Lignite < Bituminous

ANS: Option: a

Q23 Mark the correct pair of proportionality for steel making? COMPETENCY IT-II

(a) Iron ore coking coal : lime stone = 4:2:1
(b) Iron ore coking coal : limestone =4:1:2
(c) Iron ore coking coal : lime stone =1:2:4
(d) Iron ore coking coal: lime stone = 1:2:1

ANS: Option: a

Q24 Mark the incorrect pair among the following: COMPETENCY

(a) Electronics Industry: Women Employment
(b) Iron & Steel Industry: Basic Industry
(c) Fertiliser Industry: White revolution
(d) Automobile Industry: Transportation

ANS: Option: c

Q25 Fill in the given blank with relevance to the Industry _______ Market linkage. COMPETENCY [T-I

(a) Agriculture
(b) Factories
(c) Service sector
(d) Market

ANS: Option: b

Q26 Which of the following clues provided by "M" would be most useful in identifying the ideal type of soil for growing cotton?

Clues:

i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It is rich in kankur and bhangar nodules.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.

a. Clue i
b. Clue i and iii
c. Clue i and ii
d. Clue iv

ANS: Option: a

Q27 Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the threats posed to the tiger population and biodiversity?

i. Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife
ii. Prohibiting the visit of the public into forest areas.
iii. Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
iv. Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests

Options:
a. Statements i and ii are correct.
b. Statements ii, iii & iv are correct
c. Statement ii is correct
d. Statements (i), (iii) & (iv) are correct

ANS: Option: d

Q28 Learning from Belgium's experience, which of the following steps could have MOST LIKELY avoided a civil war in Sri Lanka that ended in 2009? COMPETENCY [T-II

(a) Making reservations in jobs for the Tamil speaking minority community.
(b) Dividing the entire country on the basis of linguistic lines to appease the citizens.
(c) Devising laws to accommodate the ethnic differences of citizens to ensure peace.
(d) Conducting a thorough census to strictly segregate the Indian Tamils from the Sri Lankan Tamils.

ANS: Option: a

Q29 Consider the following statements about power sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka. COMPETENCY [T-III

1. In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French-speaking community.
2. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority.
3. The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power sharing to protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs.
4. The transformation of Belgium from unitary government to a federal one prevented a possible division of the country on linguistic lines. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

ANS: Option: b

Q30 Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution. COMPETENCY IT-II

I. The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.
II. Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.
III. It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.
IV. The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement.

(a) I&II
(b) II & III
(c) I & III
(d) II & IV

ANS: Option: a

Q31 Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following COMPETENCY [T-I
options:

(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

ANS: Option: d

Q32 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists: COMPETENCY IT-II

(a) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
(b) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
(c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

ANS: Option: b

Q33 Read the following statements and choose the correct option: COMPETENCY [T-II

1. There is no official religion in India.
2. Communities have freedom to profess and practice their religion.
3. State helps communities by giving aid to educational institutions run by them.
4. India believes in theocracy.

(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, III and IV

ANS: Option: a

Q34 Match List I (Organisations and Struggles) with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: COMPETENCY [T-III

Ans: Option: c

035 Match column I with column II and select the correct answer using the given codes.

Ans: Option: c

Q36 Consider the statements given below and choose the correct option.
Statement I: The State Election Commission conducts elections for the local governments.
Statement II: The Urban local government is known as Municipal Corporations in big cities and municipalities in towns.

(a) Both statements (1) and (II) are correct.
(b) Statement (1) is correct and statement (II) is incorrect.
(c) Statement (1) is incorrect and statement (II) is correct.
(d) Both statements (1) and (II) are incorrect.

ANS: Option: a

Q37 The basic elements of democracy are: COMPETENCY [T-I

I: Universal adult franchise
II: Fraternity and national unity
III: Liberty and equality
IV: Dignity and freedom of an individual

Choose the correct statement:

(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV

ANS: Option: d

Q38 'Opposition slams minister's remark; condemns rising fuel prices.' The above statement shows the important function of opposition parties in a democracy. Which of the following options does NOT fall under the functions of an opposition party? COMPETENCY [T-I

(a) Auditing the government's spending and budget.
(b) Criticising the government for its shortcomings and mistakes.
(c) Asking questions from the govern- ment to ensure accountability.
(d) Mobilising the support of other parties to oppose the decisions of the government.

ANS: Option: a

Q39 Equal treatment of women is a necessary ingredient of a democratic society. This means that: COMPETENCY [T-III

(a) Women are actually always treated with respect.
(b) It is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights.
(c) Most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated.
(d) Women are now treated as equals in the political arena.

ANS: Option: b

Q40 As a citizen of a country with a democratic form of government, you want to ensure that the system of power-sharing is effective, and no one branch of government has absolute power. Which of the following measures would best meet this goal?

a. All power is concentrated in the hands of the legislature only.
b. Power is divided between the central government and the states or provinces, with each level having its own sphere of influence.
c. Power is separated among the legislative, executive, and judicial branches, with each branch having its own responsibilities and powers.
d. Power is shared among different levels of government, such as the national, regional, and local governments, with each level having some degree of autonomy.

ANS: Option: c

Q41 Identify the country that MOST PROBABLY has a well-developed healthcare system but lesser average education than India.

a) Sri Lanka
b) Myanmar
c) Pakistan
d) Nepal

ANS: Option: d

Q42 Read the given data and find out children of which state has attained maximum elementary school education ?

a) Haryana
b) Bihar
c) Haryana & Kerala
d) Kerala

ANS: Option: c

Q43 Vijay is undernourished as his weight is 45 kgs and his height is 1.78 meters. Find out his Body Mass Index (BMI) from the following options. [T-II

(a) 12.6
(b) 13.5
(c) 14.7
(d) 15.2

ANS: Option: a

Q44 SAccording to 2017-2018 data, the share of different sectors in employment (percentage) in India was ____
• Primary Sector - 44%
Secondary Sector - 25%
. Tertiary Sector - 31%
Out of the three sectors, why did the ratio of employment in Primary Sector high? Select the most suitable option from the following:

a) Workers in the Primary Sector are underemployed.
b) Low job opportunities in the Secondary Sector.
c) Efforts of labour are not equivalent in all the sectors.
d) Outsourcing of job opportunities in Secondary Sector.

ANS: Option: b

Q45 Not every good (or service) that is produced and sold needs to be counted. It makes sense only to include the............. to get the total production?

A. values of goods and services in production
B. final goods and services
C. adding up the actual numbers of goods
D. goods and services in the three sectors

ANS: Option: b

Q46 ............... an asset that the borrower owns (such as land, building, vehicle, livestock, deposits with banks) and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid?

A. Debt trap
B. Guarantee
C. Collateral
D. Warranty

ANS: Option: c

Q47 What does the given graph assert?

P- With increasing income, loans from formal sector increases.
Q- With decreasing income loans with formal sector increases.
R- With decreasing income loans with formal sector decreases.

a) Only P
b) Only Q
c) Both P and Q
d) Both P and R

ANS: Option: d

Q48 Banks in India these days hold about......... of their deposits as cash. This is kept as a provision to pay the depositors who might come to withdraw money from the bank on any given day.

A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 15%

ANS: Option: d

Q49 What did the removal of trade barriers mean? COMPETENCY [T-II

(a) Foreign companies could setup their factories in India.
(b) India will compete with the world market.
(c) India will now import and export freely.
(d) All of the above.

ANS: Option: d

Q50 Identify the correct statements about globalisation. COMPETENCY [T-I

I. Removal of barriers by the government
II. Foreign companies are allowed to set up factories.
III. Has enabled all companies to increase their investments.
IV. Has lessened foreign investment and foreign trade.

(a) I & II
(b) II & III
(c) I & III
(d) II & IV

ANS: Option: a