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CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2025 and Question Papers, Download PDF All SETs

The CBSE Class 12 Geography Paper 2025 exam was conducted today, February 24, 2025. The exam lasted for 3 hours, conducted from 10:30 am to 1:30 pm, with an additional 15 minutes given for reading the question paper.

Here we are providing a detailed analysis of student responses, expert opinions and the difficulty level of the paper including expected good scores, time-consuming section and longest question.

We have shared the CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 PDF and answer key to help students check their answers and evaluate their performance. Direct link to download CBSE 12th Geography Question Paper 2025 to be avialble on this page.

👉 CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key (Set - 1)

👉 CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key (Set - 2)

👉 CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key (Set - 3)

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Analysis 2025: Key Highlights

  • Map-Based Questions: Students found them straightforward and aligned with expected topics.
  • Data Interpretation & Diagram-Based Questions: Some students found them slightly challenging.
  • Student Reactions:
    • Many described the paper as moderate in difficulty.
    • Most questions were from the NCERT textbook.
    • Proper preparation made the paper manageable.
  • Expert Opinions:
    • The paper was balanced and comprehensive.
    • Time management was crucial for better performance.
    • Practicing previous years' papers and mock tests helped students.

CBSE 12th Geography Student Review 2025

The details of student reviews on CBSE 12th Geography paper are updated here:

  • According to some students, the overall difficulty level of the paper was moderate.
  • The questions were asked from the syllabus, however some questions were a bit difficult.
  • One student said, 'The paper was a bit lengthy, I did not get time to revise.'
  • The questions in the mapping section were a bit difficult.
  • The language of the paper was easy to understand.
  • The long answer questions were lengthy, but the questions were straightforward.
  • Section-A was mostly easy except for a few questions.

CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Analysis 2025

Parameter CBSE Class 12 Geography Exam Analysis 2025
Overall Difficulty Level Moderate
Section A Difficulty Level Easy
Section B Difficulty Level Easy to Moderate
Section C Difficulty Level Moderate
Section D Difficulty Level Moderate to Tough
Section E Difficulty Level Easy to Moderate
Expected Good Score 55-60 marks
Was the paper time-consuming? Yes, Somewhat
Which section was the longest? Section D

CBSE Class 12 Geography Answer Key 2025 

SECTION - A

Question no. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions. (17 x 1 = 17)

1. The concept of 'Neodeterminism' was introduced by ____________ .

(A) Ehrlich

(B) C. Semple

(C) Griffith Taylor

(D) Humboldt

Answer: (C) Griffith Taylor

2. "Human geography is the synthetic study of relationship between human societies and earth's surface." This definition of human geography is given by __________ .

(A) Vidal-de-la-Blache

(B) Richard Hartshorne

(C) Ritter

(D) Ratzel

Answer: (A) Vidal-de-la-Blache

3. Which one of the following is the core concern of geography as a discipline?

(A) To understand population distribution and the factors affecting the same.

(B) To understand the relationship between resource distribution and its utilisation.

(C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.

(D) To understand the earth as the home of natural resources and their

Answer: (C) To understand the earth as the home of human beings and its sustainability.

4. Read the following statements regarding inland ports carefully and choose the correct option:

(i) These ports are located away from the sea coast.

(ii) These ports are linked to sea by inland water bodies.

(iii) These ports are accessible by flat bottomed ships or barges.

(iv) Kochchi, Aden and Honolulu are some of the examples of inland port. Options:

(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

5. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): ‘International trade may prove to be detrimental to nations.’

Reason (R): 'It may lead to dependence on other nations causing exploitation.'

Options:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A). 

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

(D) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

6. Choose the correct option to fill the blank:

"In modern times, trade is the basis of the world's economic organisation and is related to the ___________ of nations".

(A) bilateral trade policy

(B) multi-lateral trade policy

(C) foreign trade policy

(D) internal need policy

Answer: (C) foreign trade policy

7. Arrange the following towns of India as per their historical evolution from the oldest to the newest order and choose the correct option:

(i) Chennai

(ii) Gandhinagar

(iii) Patna

(iv) Lucknow

Options:

(A) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

(C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(D) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Answer:(B) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

8. Read the following statements regarding urban settlements of India carefully and choose the correct options:
(i) All urban settlements are manufacturing centres.
(ii) Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size.
(iii) They are engaged in a variety of non-agricultural activities.
(iv) The urban settlements have a direct relation with rural settlements.

Options:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

Answer: (C) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

9. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): ‘The agriculturally rich states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh are facing the crisis of groundwater depletion.’
Reason (R): ‘More groundwater is utilised for irrigation than water-table recharge.’

Options:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A).
(C) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).

10. Read the following statements related to the Indira Gandhi Canal Project carefully and choose the correct option:
(i) The Indira Gandhi Canal project was conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1950 and it was launched in 1961.
(ii) The introduction of canal irrigation has brought perceptible changes in the agricultural economy of the command area.
(iii) The spread of canal irrigation has led to an increase in cultivated area and crop intensity.
(iv) Traditional crops of jowar, and bajra have been replaced by rice and wheat etc.

Options:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only are correct.
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only are correct.
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.

Answer: (D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only are correct.

11. Read the following statements related to international trade in India carefully and choose the correct option:
(i) India has a long coastline surrounded by ocean from three sides.
(ii) Indian coasts have a large number of well-developed seaports.
(iii) Kandla port exports huge amount of iron-ore.
(iv) The transportation cost by water is very cheap for voluminous items.

Options:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

12. Why is it that slums are the areas of residence with least choice? Choose the correct options:
(i) They have dilapidated houses with poor ventilation.
(ii) The basic facilities like lights and toilets are difficult to get.
(iii) Hygienic conditions and drinking water are improper.
(iv) Better drainage facilities are available.

Options:
(A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

 Answer: (A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

13. The watershed management programme in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh is funded by which one of the following ministries?

Options:
(A) Rural Development
(B) Environment
(C) Transport
(D) Irrigation

Answer: (A) Rural Development

14. Local names like Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani etc. are examples of which of the following types of rural settlements in India?

Options:
(A) Clustered settlement
(B) Semi-clustered settlement
(C) Hamleted settlement
(D) Dispersed settlement

Answer: (C) Hamleted settlement

Study the following table carefully and answer the Question No. 15 to 17:

Composition of India’s export: 2009-2017

(Percentage share in exports)

Commodities 2009-10 2010-11 2015-16 2016-17
Agriculture and allied products 10.0 9.9 12.6 12.3
Ore and minerals 4.9 4.0 1.6 1.9
Manufactured goods 67.4 68.0 72.9 73.6
Crude and petroleum products 16.2 16.8 11.9 11.7
Other commodities 1.5 1.2 1.1 0.5

15. Under which one of the following categories of commodities, the maximum decline in export is recorded from 2015-16 to 2016-17?

Options:
(A) Agriculture and allied products
(B) Ore and minerals
(C) Crude and petroleum products
(D) Other commodities

Answer: (D) Other commodities

 

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