Weekly Current Affairs Test : 1st to 7th August 2024

The main reason for mangrove loss in India, as highlighted in the report, is shrimp aquaculture. Shrimp aquaculture has been identified as a major driver of mangrove loss in states like Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, and Gujarat. The expansion of shrimp aquaculture has led to the destruction of natural mangrove forests in various regions, threatening the biodiversity and ecological balance of these vital ecosystems. Efforts to address this issue are crucial to the conservation and sustainable management of mangroves in India.

All three statements are correct as per the details provided in the report "The State of the World's Mangroves 2024":

1. Mangroves can reduce flood depths by 15-20%, and over 70% in some areas : This statement is accurate. The report highlights the critical role mangroves play in reducing flood depths significantly, which is essential for mitigating flood impacts.

2. The Global Mangrove Watch's latest map (GMW v4.0) maps 147,256 km² of mangroves in 2020, adding data for six new territories : This statement is also correct. The GMW v4.0 has indeed improved spatial resolution and extended the mangrove mapping to new territories.

3. The Union government’s MISHTI programme aims to augment mangrove cover by planting mangroves in 540 sq km across 11 states and two Union territories : This statement accurately reflects the MISHTI programme's objectives as described in the report, aiming to enhance India's mangrove cover.

Given the accuracy of all statements:

Correct Answer: D: 1, 2 and 3

1. Indonesia: 21% of the world 's mangroves - Correct. Indonesia holds about 21% of the world 's mangroves.
2. Philippines: Over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare in some areas - Correct. Some mangrove areas in the Philippines have average values of over 650 tonnes of carbon per hectare.
3. West Bengal: Largest mangrove area in India - Correct. West Bengal holds the largest mangrove area in India.
4. Tamil Nadu: Critically endangered mangrove forests - Incorrect. While the report mentions that natural mangrove forests on the southern Indian coast are critically endangered, this primarily refers to the Lakshadweep archipelago and not specifically Tamil Nadu.
Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly highlights that mangroves can reduce flood depths by 15-20%, while Statement-II is accurate in stating that mangroves store an average of 394 tonnes of carbon per hectare in their living biomass and soil. The ability of mangroves to store carbon contributes to their importance in climate change mitigation efforts. Thus, both statements are correct, with Statement-II providing additional context that supports Statement-I.

Sovereign Gold Bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India under the Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme. These bonds aim to reduce the demand for physical gold and encourage investment in financial savings. Investors can purchase these bonds through various authorized channels like scheduled commercial banks, post offices, and stock exchanges.

• The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation ’s Act 1964, in order to fulfill following objectives of the Food Policy: Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers, distribution of foodgrains throughout the country for public distribution system and maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of foodgrains to ensure national food security.
• Since its inception, FCI has played a significant role in India ’s success in transforming the crisis management-oriented food security into a stable security system.

1. Hoolock Gibbon: Found in India's northeastern region - Correct - The Hoolock Gibbon is native to the northeastern region of India.

2. Great Nicobar Project: Includes a Greenfield International Airport - Correct - The Great Nicobar Project includes the development of a Greenfield International Airport.

3. Sovereign Gold Bonds: Issued by SEBI - Incorrect - Sovereign Gold Bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India, not SEBI.

4. Hollong Tree: Dominates the Upper Canopy of Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary - Correct - The Hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus) is a dominant species in the upper canopy of the Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary.

Thus, out of the four pairs, three pairs are correctly matched.

• Statement-I is correct because the atmosphere is indeed heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. The sun 's energy is the primary source of heat for the Earth 's atmosphere.
• Statement-II is also correct as carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are indeed good absorbers of long wave radiation. They absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect which warms the Earth 's surface.
• However, Statement-II does not directly explain Statement-I. While both statements are individually correct, there is no direct explanatory link between them. Solar radiation heating the atmosphere more than terrestrial radiation is a function of the Earth 's energy balance and the properties of greenhouse gases, but the specific absorption of long wave radiation doesn 't directly tie into the comparison of solar vs. terrestrial heating.

The primary purpose of the 'Right to Be Forgotten' is to enable individuals to have control over their personal information in the digital age. This right allows individuals to request the removal of their outdated, irrelevant, or harmful personal data from digital platforms, thereby empowering them to manage their online presence and privacy effectively.

The statements provided accurately reflect the details of the ransomware attack as mentioned in the source material.

- Statement 1 is correct. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) indeed identified the ransomware attack that disrupted operations of cooperative banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India.

- Statement 2 is correct. The banks affected by the ransomware attack were primarily serviced by C-Edge Technologies Ltd., which is a joint venture between Tata Consultancy Services Ltd. (TCS) and State Bank of India (SBI).

- Statement 3 is correct. The impact was indeed limited to banks using the same technology service provider, while RRBs using different technology providers continued to function normally.

Thus, all three statements are correct, making Option D: 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer.

1. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) - Correctly matched. It is a digital payment system that enables instant money transfers between bank accounts.

2. Aadhaar-enabled Payment Systems (AePS) - Correctly matched. It allows bank transactions using Aadhaar authentication.

3. Ransomware - Correctly matched. It is a type of malware that encrypts data or locks devices, demanding a ransom for decryption.

4. Ransomware Task Force (RTF) - Incorrectly matched. The Ransomware Task Force (RTF) provides assistance with investigation, recovery, and prevention of ransomware attacks, not phishing attacks.

Thus, three pairs are correctly matched.

Statement-I correctly explains coastal erosion as a process caused by the sea wearing away the land through various mechanisms like powerful waves, tidal actions, and other factors. On the other hand, Statement-II incorrectly attributes the exacerbation of coastal erosion solely to development projects aimed at boosting economic growth. While development projects can contribute to coastal erosion by altering natural dynamics, they are not the sole cause. Coastal erosion is a complex process influenced by various natural and human-induced factors, making Statement-II incomplete and partially incorrect.

A surface fire is a type of wildfire that primarily burns along the ground, consuming surface litter like leaves, twigs, and dry grasses. These fires are common in various natural settings such as forests, grasslands, brushlands, or tundras. They are influenced by environmental conditions like wind and topography, spreading based on these factors.

Statement 1 is correct. The Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act (THOTA) was indeed amended in 2011 to include specific provisions aimed at promoting organ donation and transplantation.

Statement 2 is also correct. According to the regulations, organs from deceased donors are allocated to foreign nationals only when no matching Indian patients are available, ensuring that Indian recipients are prioritized.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) is primarily responsible for providing a national system for organ procurement and distribution, and not specifically for regulating living organ donations. The regulation of living organ donations is covered under the THOTA and related rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option B: 1 and 2 Only.

1. Gender Distribution of Living Donors: 63% women - Correctly matched - According to the NOTTO report, 63% of living donors were women.

2. Transplants by Region in Delhi: 78% of foreign national transplants - Incorrectly matched - The correct information is that Delhi-NCR region accounted for nearly 78% of foreign national transplants, not just Delhi alone.

3. Deceased Donor Milestone: First time more than 1,000 deceased organ donors in a year - Correctly matched - In 2023, for the first time, India surpassed 1,000 deceased organ donors in a single year, breaking the previous record set in 2022.

4. Organ Donation Rate: 1 per million population - Incorrectly matched - The actual organ donation rate is less than 1 per million population as per the report.

Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.

Answer: Option C

The primary objective of the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, is to enhance accountability and transparency in the functioning of Waqf boards. This amendment aims to address concerns about the unchecked powers of Waqf Boards and bring in more transparency by introducing mandatory verification procedures for all property claims, including gender diversity in the composition of the boards.

1. Statement 1 is Correct: The Supreme Court ruled that the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of Delhi has the explicit power to nominate aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD) without needing advice from the Delhi Government's Council of Ministers. This was established based on the interpretation of Section 3 of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957.

2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution requires that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the LG in matters within the Legislative Assembly's power, but this does not apply to the nomination of aldermen as per the Supreme Court ruling.

3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Aldermen nominated to the MCD do not have voting rights in all MCD meetings. They can vote and stand for election in Wards Committees but do not have voting rights in general MCD meetings.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making Option A the correct answer.

1. Article 239AA - Correctly matched. Article 239AA of the Indian Constitution mandates that the Council of Ministers and the Chief Minister should aid and advise the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) on matters within the Legislative Assembly’s power.

2. Section 3 of the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, 1957 - Correctly matched. The Act grants the Delhi LG the power to nominate aldermen without requiring the advice of the Council of Ministers.

3. Government of NCT of Delhi v. Union of India, 2023 - Correctly matched. The Supreme Court held that Parliament would have the power to legislate over subjects in the State List for the NCT of Delhi.

4. 69th Amendment Act, 1991 - Incorrectly matched. While the 69th Amendment Act, 1991, did rename the Union Territory of Delhi to the National Capital Territory (NCT), it does not mandate that it be administered by a LG who works on aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. This specific mandate is derived from Article 239AA.

Thus, pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched, while pair 4 is not.

- Statement-I: The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 indeed aims to enhance transparency and accountability in the functioning of Waqf boards by introducing around 40 amendments to the existing Waqf Act, 1995. This statement is correct.

- Statement-II: The Waqf Act, 1995 did grant extensive powers to Waqf Boards, including the authority to designate any property as Waqf without stringent checks. This statement is also correct. The amendments in the new bill are specifically addressing concerns about unchecked powers of Waqf Boards.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II explains the need for the amendments highlighted in Statement-I, making option (a) the correct answer.

• The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary, formerly known as the Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary  is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in Assam. The sanctuary was officially constituted and renamed in 1997. Set aside initially in 1881, its forests used to extend to the foothills of the Patkai mountain range.
• Since then, the forest has been fragmented and surrounded by tea gardens and small villages.
• The Hollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary contains India ’s only ape and gibbon specie –the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India ’s only nocturnal primate –the Bengal slow loris.
• The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the hollong tree (Dipterocarpus macrocarpus), while the nahar (Mesua ferrea) dominates the middle canopy. The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

An Agriculture Accelerator Fund will be set up to encourage agri-startups by young entrepreneurs in rural areas. The fund will aim at bringing innovative and affordable solutions for challenges faced by farmers. It will also bring in modern technologies to transform agricultural practices, and increase productivity and profitability.

About the Chicago Convention:

• Also known as the Convention on International Civil Aviation, it is an international treaty established in 1944. It set out the core principles for international air transport and created the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)to oversee its implementation.
• The convention recognizes nine freedoms of air, with the first five being officially recognized by the ICAO. These freedoms grant countries the right to fly over, land in, and transport passengers and cargo between territories.
• India is its member

• Pangong Tso Lake is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet situated at an elevation of 4,225 m (13,862 ft). It is 134 km (83 mi) long and divided into five sublakes, called Pangong Tso, Tso Nyak, Rum Tso (twin lakes) and Nyak Tso.
• During winter the lake freezes completely, despite being saline water. It has a land-locked basin separated from the Indus River basin by a small elevated ridge, but is believed to have been part of the latter in prehistoric times.
• The lake is not under the Ramsar Convention as a wetland of international importance.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

A new initiative to develop and distribute mRNA vaccines for human avian influenza (H5N1) in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs), in collaboration with the World Health Organization (WHO) and the Medicines Patent Pool (MPP).

• The project is part of the mRNA Technology Transfer Programme, established in 2021 to enhance vaccine production capacity in LMICs.
• Once successful, the knowledge and materials will be shared with other manufacturers to expedite vaccine development and strengthen pandemic preparedness.
• The initiative aligns with ongoing efforts to improve the sharing of influenza viruses and vaccine access under the Pandemic Influenza Preparedness Framework.

The mRNA Technology Transfer Programme has already developed a platform for COVID-19 vaccine candidates, which is now being adapted for other diseases, enhancing global vaccine equity.

Committee Recommendations:

• Justice P. Ramachandra Raju Commission (1996): Recommended sub-categorization of Scheduled Castes in Andhra Pradesh
• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC): Advocated for measures to address intra-group disparities and
• National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST): Highlighted the need to prioritize existing schemes and government benefits to reach the most backward sections of Scheduled Tribes before considering sub-categorization.
• Usha Mehra Committee (2008): Proposed the inclusion of Clause (3) in Article 341 through a constitutional amendment, empowering state legislatures to enact reclassification of the Scheduled Caste category, subject to Presidential confirmation.
• Justice G. Rohini headed the Commission for the Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBC): Report submitted in August 2023