NTSE - SAT-2013

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Question 1
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An animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium share which of the following structural features?

A
Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, and vacuoles

B
Cell wall, plasma membrane, and mitochondria

C
Cell wall, nucleus, and cytoplasm

D
Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and ribosomes

Question 2
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A plant that has a well-differentiated body, special tissues for transport of water and other substances, but does not have seeds or fruits is a/an

A
bryophyte

B
angiosperm

C
gymnosperm

D
pteridophyte

Question 3
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Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain and the doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from peptic ulcers and treated him with antibiotics. He was relieved of the pain. What could be the reason for the peptic ulcers?

A
Reduced secretion of hormones

B
Reduced water content

C
Growth of Helicobacter pylori

D
Excess secretion of enzyme

Question 4
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The average temperature of the Earth remains fairly steady as compared to that of the Moon because of the

A
atmosphere

B
lithosphere

C
biosphere

D
hydrosphere

Question 5
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Which one of the following conditions in a flower will increase the chances of self-pollination?

A
Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower.

B
Stamens are just above the stigma of a pistil in a flower.

C
In all flowers of a plant, only pistil is present.

D
In all flowers of a plant, only stamens are present.

Question 6
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A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB' because it

A
has both 'A' and 'B' antigens

B
has only 'A' antigen and 'b' antibodies

C
has only 'B' antigen and 'a' antibodies

D
does not have any antigens and antibodies

Question 7
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What would happen to a person if the cerebellum of his brain is damaged?

A
He will lose his memory power.

B
He will not be able to swallow food properly.

C
He will be unable to coordinate and stand properly.

D
He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.

Question 8
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Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation.
B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation.
C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.
D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.

A
A and B

B
B and C

C
C and D

D
D and A

Question 9
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A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny. Crows on the tree eat beetles.

Some green beetles appear among the red beetle because

A
beetles become green by accumulating chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat

B
natural variations occur during sexual reproduction

C
red beetles mimic the green colour of the leaves whenever they see crows

D
beetles change their colour from red to green with change of season

Question 10
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A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny. Crows on the tree eat beetles.

The colour composition of the beetle population is likely to change in which of the following manners?

A
Both red and green beetles survive equally.

B
Only the red beetles survive.

C
More red beetles survive than green beetles

D
More green beetles survive than red beetles.

Question 11
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If non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such as DDT, enters the food chain, then the pollutant

A
magnifies in concentration at each trophic level

B
degrades at the first trophic level

C
accumulates in the body fat of organism at the first trophic level and does not pass to the second trophic level

D
decreases in concentration at each trophic level

Question 12
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A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating liquids A and B at a temperature of 22°C are placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid B. Which of the following can be said about the liquids A and B?

A
Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of liquid B.

B
Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

C
Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

D
The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal.

Question 13
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Which of the following is a suitable example for illustrating the law of constant proportions? (Atomic mass of O = 16; H = 1)

A
18 g of water is formed by the combination of 16 g oxygen with 2 g of hydrogen.

B
18 g of water in liquid state is obtained by heating 18 g of ice.

C
18 g of water is completely converted into vapour state on heating.

D
18 g of water freezes at 4°C to give the same mass of ice.

Question 14
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An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell. Which of the following statements are true about element X?

I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic table.
II. Its atom contains 9 protons.
III. It has a valency of 7.
IV. Its atom can accept an electron to acquire noble gas configuration.

A
I and II

B
II and Ill

C
III and IV

D
Il and IV

Question 15
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The reaction between carbon and oxygen can be represented as

C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + heat

In which of the following type(s) can the above reaction be classified?

I. Combustion reaction
II. Displacement reaction
III. Endothermic reaction
IV. Combination reaction

A
I and Ill

B
I, III and IV

C
I and IV

D
I only

Question 16
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Which of the following is true about the two statements?

Statement I: Reactivity of aluminium decreases when it is dipped in nitric acid.
Statement II: A protective layer of aluminium nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in nitric acid.

A
I is correct but II is incorrect.

B
I is incorrect but Il is correct.

C
Both the statements are correct and II is also the correct explanation of I.

D
Both the statements are correct but II is not correct explanation of I.

Question 17
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Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon will undergo combustion as well as addition reactions?

A
CH₄ and C₂H₆

B
C₂H₆O and C₃H₈O

C
C₂H₄O₂ and C₃H₈O

D
C₂H₂ and C₃H₆

Question 18
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An element X combines with hydrogen to form a compound XH₃.
X is the most abundant element in the atmosphere.

Which of the following statements are true about element X?

A. It has 7 valence electrons.
B. It exists as a metal and is solid at room temperature.
C. Is a non-metal and occurs as a gas.
D. It has 5 valence electrons.
E. XH₃ reacts with water to form a basic compound.

A
A, B and C

B
B, C and D

C
C, D and E

D
E, A and B

Question 19
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An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with another element Y (atomic number 17) to form a compound Z. Which of the following statements are true regarding this compound?

I. Molecular formula of Z is XY₂.
II. It is soluble in water.
III. X and Y are bonded by sharing of electrons.
IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten state.

A
II and III

B
I and III

C
I, III and IV

D
I, II and IV

Question 20
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A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which is flat and measured several times over a large area. One day the reflected sound wave takes longer time than in previous measurements. The possible reason is that

A
the frequency of the sonar wave generated by the equipment is lower than previous measurements

B
there is a solid object of large size in the path of sonar wave

C
there is a huge air bubble in the path of sonar wave

D
the loudness of the sonar wave, generated by the equipment is lower than previous measurement

Question 21
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A concave lens always gives a virtual image. For optical lenses worn by humans, which of the following statements is true?

A
The lens can never be concave.

B
In some cases, the lens can be concave if the focal length is much more than 2.5 cm.

C
All focal length concave lenses are possible.

D
All focal length convex lenses are possible.

Question 22
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A geostationary satellite is orbiting around earth at a height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the earth is taken as 60,00 km. The geostationary satellite comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly 24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s² and mass of satellite be 1000 kg. Calculate the work done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational force.

A
3.6π×10¹⁴J

B
2π×7.2π×10¹⁴J

C
1.8π×10¹⁴J

D
0

Question 23
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An open box is made from a square lamina of side 12 cm, by cutting equal squares at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. The volume of this box cannot be

A
115 c.c.

B
120 c.c.

C
125 c.c.

D
130 c.c.

Question 24
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A has a pair of triangles with corresponding sides proportional, and B has a pair of pentagons with corresponding sides proportional, S1 ≡ A's triangles must be similar S2 ≡ B's pentagons must be similar

Which of the following statement is correct?

A
S1 is true but S2 is not true.

B
S2 is true, but S1 is not ture.

C
Both S1 and S2 are true.

D
Neither S1 nor S2 is true.

Question 25
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The square of an odd integer must be of the form

A
6n + 1

B
6n + 3

C
8n + 1

D
4n + 1 but may not be 8n + 1

Question 26
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The value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° .... tan 89° is

A
0

B
1

C
2

D
4

Question 27
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The equation ax² + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has real roots if

A
a, b, c are integers

B
b² > 3ac

C
ac > 0 and b is zero

D
c = 0

Question 28
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An open box A is made from a square piece of tin by cutting equal squares S at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. Another open box B is made similarly using one of the squares S. If U and V are the volumes of A and B, respectively, then which of the following is not possible?

A
U > V

B
V > U

C
U = V

D
Minimum value of U > maximum value of V.

Question 29
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Which of the following statements is true?

A
Every rectangle is a square.

B
Every parallelogram is a trapezium.

C
Every rhombus is a square.

D
Every parallelogram is a rectangle.

Question 30
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Which of the following polygons are uniquely determined when all the sides are given?

A
Quadrilateral

B
Triangle

C
Pentagon

D
Hexagon

Question 31
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One integer is chosen out of 1, 2, 3, ....., 100. What is the probability that it is neither divisible by 4 nor by 6?

A
0.59

B
0.67

C
0.41

D
0.33

Question 32
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A solid metal sphere of surface area S₁is melted and recast into a number of smaller spheres. If S₂ is the sum of the surface areas of all the smaller spheres, then

A
S₁ > S₂

B
S₂ > S₁

C
S₁ = S₂

D
S₁ = S₂ only if all the smaller spheres of equal radii

Question 33
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Re. 1 and Rs. 5 coins are available (as many as required). Find the smallest payment, which cannot be made by these coins, if not more than 4 coins are allowed.

A
Rs. 3

B
Rs. 12

C
Rs. 9

D
Rs. 13

Question 34
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The median of 1, 9, 4, 3, 7, 6, 8, 8, 12 and 15 is

A
7.5

B
7

C
8

D
9

Question 35
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From about 13^th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be followed strictly to

A
regulate the behaviour of the royalty

B
regulate the income of the people by social rank

C
control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors

D
provide religious sanctity to social behaviour

Question 36
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On 3^rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed to

(a) establish dictatorship in Germany
(b) give Hitler the power to rule by decree
(c) ban all trade unions
(d) ban all political parties and their affiliates

A
Only (a) and (b) are correct

B
Only (c) and (d) are correct

C
Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct

D
Only (d) is correct

Question 37
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Enclosures in England were seen as

A
hindrances to agricultural expansion and crop rotation

B
hindrances to commercialisation of agriculture

C
necessary to make long-term investment on land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to improve the soil.

D
necessary to protect the interests of those who depended on the commons for their survival

Question 38
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The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region comprising

A
Romania, Germany, Poland and Bulgaria

B
Romania, Prussia, Greece, Croatia and Serbia

C
Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland

D
Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Croatia and Romania

Question 39
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What was Rinderpest?

A
A disease of cattle plague that spread in Africa in the 1890s.

B
Bubonic plague which spread in the region of Maharashtra in the 1890s.

C
A type of cholera that spread in Assarn in the 1890s.

D
A devastating bird disease that was imported to Italy from British Asia through chicken meat.

Question 40
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Which of the following is a correct match?

A
Rashsundari Debi - Istri Dharma Vichar

B
Ram Chadda - Amar Jiban

C
Kashibaba - Chote Aur Bade ka Sawaal

D
Sudarshan Chakra - Gulamgiri

Question 41
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Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God?

A
Martin Luther

B
Menocchio

C
Roman Catholic Church

D
Gutenberg

Question 42
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The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into

A
reserved and protected forests

B
protected and village forests

C
biosphere reserves and wildlife sanctuaries

D
reserved, protected and village forests

Question 43
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Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the given options.

Statement I: Hitler said, ''In my state, the mother is the most important citizen.''
Statement II: In Nazi Germany, while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel-hearted; girls were told that they had to become good mothers.

A
Statement I is true, but statement II is false.

B
Both statement I and statement II are true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

C
Both the statements are false.

D
Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Question 44
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the given options.

Statement I: The major cricket tournament of colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not represent regions but religious communities.
Statement II: The victory of the 'Hindus' in the 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's war on 'untouchability'.

A
Statement I is true but statement II is false

B
Statement I is false but statement II is true

C
Both statement I and statement II are true and II is correct explanation of statement I

D
Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

Question 45

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Match the following columns:

	Column A		Column B
(I)	Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association	(A)	December, 1929
(II)	Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement	(B)	August, 1930
(III)	Gandhiji ended the Civil Disobedience Movement	(C)	March, 1930
(IV)	Congress adopted the demand for 'Purna Swaraj'	(D)	March, 1931

(I) - (C), (II) - (D), (III) - (B), (IV) - (A)

(I) - (B), (II) - (C), (III) - (D), (IV) - (A)

(I) - (C), (II) - (A), (III) - (B), (IV) - (D)

(I) - (D), (II) - (C), (III) - (B), (IV) - (A)

Question 46
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the given options.

Statement I: The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great Britain".
Statement II: The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.

A
Both statement I and statement II are false.

B
Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the result of statement I.

C
Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D
Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not a result of statement I.

Question 47
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the given options.

Statement I: Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled.
Statement II: Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily.
Statement III: Potato reached the West through travellers and became the staple diet of the poor.

A
Statement I and statement III are true.

B
Statement II and statement III are ture.

C
All three statements are true.

D
Statement I and statement II are true.

Question 48
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Assertion (A): Gandhiji's idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
Reasoning (R): Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
A is true and R is false.

B
Both A and R are true, but R not the correct explanation of A.

C
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

D
Both A and R are false.

Question 49
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Assertion (A): The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement.
Reason (R): People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B
Both A and R are false.

C
A is false, but R is true.

D
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 50
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Assertion (A): Coal is a fossil fuel.
Reason (R): It is formed due to compression of inorganic material over millions of years.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 51
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Assertion (A): The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat.
Reason (R): Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 52
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Assertion (A): In India, east coast has more seaports than the west coast.
Reason (R): The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 53
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Assertion (A): The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter.
Reason (R): The winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 54
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Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?

A
Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore and Marmagao

B
Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore and Mumbai

C
Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla and Mangalore

D
Kolata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam and Chennai

Question 55
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Assertion (A): The Himalayan ranges show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra.
Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 56
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Which of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion?

A. Ploughing along contour lines
B. Strip cropping
C. Jhumming
D. Mixed farming

A
A and B

B
A and C

C
B and D

D
B and C

Question 57
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Assertion (A): Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate.
Reason (R): Himalaya mountain ranges protect it from the northerly cold winds.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 58
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Which of the following features has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?

A
Aravalli Range

B
Purvanchal Hills

C
Siwaliks

D
Chotanagpur Plateau

Question 59
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Assertion (A): Sex Ratio in India is low.
Reason (R): Indian society has been unfavourable to females.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A).

B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 60
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A pilot takes off from an airport at 15°S latitude and flies 55° due North. What latitude has the pilot reached?

A
55°N

B
40°N

C
70°N

D
15°N

Question 61
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Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

A
The Constitution creates a strong Centre.

B
The Constitution provides for a single judiciary.

C
The Constitution provides for a common All India Services.

D
The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of Parliament.

Question 62
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Which of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?

A
No external power can dictate to the Government of India.

B
The Head of the State is a hereditary position.

C
All people are equal before law.

D
Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion.

Question 63
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According to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, which of the following is 'heart and soul' of our Constitution?

A
The Preamble

B
Right to Equality

C
Right against Exploitation

D
Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 64
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Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the following statements support this claim?

A.It is a more accountable form of government.
B.It improves the quality of decision making.
C.It ensures rapid economic development of citizens.
D.It enhances the dignity of citizens.

A
A, B and D

B
A and C

C
A, B and C

D
B, C and D

Question 65
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The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because

A
women are good at managing resources

B
although women constitute nearly half of the population, they have inadequate representation in decision-making bodies

C
we have many powerful women leaders.

D
women are obedient and would follow the constitutional provisions well

Question 66
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In which of the following economies are people more of a resource?

A
Country A with 78% of the working age population illiterate and with very low life expectancy

B
Country B with 10% of the working age population illiterate and with high life expectancy

C
Country C with 60% of people in the working age illiterate, but with high life expectancy

D
Country D with only 10% of population is the working age illiterate, but has very low life expectancy

Question 67
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Which of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and 2003?

A
The sectorial share of agriculture in employment has decreased far more than its share on total output.

B
The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has decreased, but its share in employment has increased.

C
The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has increased, but its share in employment has decreased.

D
The sectorial share of agriculture in output has decreased far more than its share in total employment.

Question 68
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Which of the following can be considered as Foreign Direct investment made in India?

A. The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad.
B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed company.
C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala.
D. The US multinational Google opens its full-fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.

A
(A) and (D)

B
(A) and (B)

C
(D) Only

D
(B) and (C)

Question 69
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We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because

A
it has gold backing

B
the law legalises it

C
the Reserve Bank of India has precious metals against which it prints notes

D
everyone else accepts it

Question 70
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Which of the following refers to trade barrier in the context of WTO?

I. Restrictions on domestic trade
II. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity
III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods
IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies

A
(I), (II) and (III)

B
(I), (II) and (IV)

C
(III) and (IV)

D
(II), (III) and (IV)

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NTSE - SAT-2013...

Question 1

Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, and vacuoles

Cell wall, plasma membrane, and mitochondria

Cell wall, nucleus, and cytoplasm

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and ribosomes

Question 2

bryophyte

angiosperm

gymnosperm

pteridophyte

Question 3

Reduced secretion of hormones

Reduced water content

Growth of Helicobacter pylori

Excess secretion of enzyme

Question 4

atmosphere

lithosphere

biosphere

hydrosphere

Question 5

Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower.

Stamens are just above the stigma of a pistil in a flower.

In all flowers of a plant, only pistil is present.

In all flowers of a plant, only stamens are present.

Question 6

has both 'A' and 'B' antigens

has only 'A' antigen and 'b' antibodies

has only 'B' antigen and 'a' antibodies

does not have any antigens and antibodies

Question 7

He will lose his memory power.

He will not be able to swallow food properly.

He will be unable to coordinate and stand properly.

He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.

Question 8

A and B

B and C

C and D

D and A

Question 9

beetles become green by accumulating chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat

natural variations occur during sexual reproduction

red beetles mimic the green colour of the leaves whenever they see crows

beetles change their colour from red to green with change of season

Question 10

Both red and green beetles survive equally.

Only the red beetles survive.

More red beetles survive than green beetles

More green beetles survive than red beetles.

Question 11

magnifies in concentration at each trophic level

degrades at the first trophic level

accumulates in the body fat of organism at the first trophic level and does not pass to the second trophic level

decreases in concentration at each trophic level

Question 12

Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of liquid B.

Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal.

Question 13

18 g of water is formed by the combination of 16 g oxygen with 2 g of hydrogen.

18 g of water in liquid state is obtained by heating 18 g of ice.

18 g of water is completely converted into vapour state on heating.

18 g of water freezes at 4°C to give the same mass of ice.

Question 14

I and II

II and Ill

III and IV

Il and IV

Question 15

I and Ill

I, III and IV

I and IV

I only

Question 16

I is correct but II is incorrect.

I is incorrect but Il is correct.

Both the statements are correct and II is also the correct explanation of I.

CH₄ and C₂H₆

C₂H₆O and C₃H₈O

C₂H₄O₂ and C₃H₈O

C₂H₂ and C₃H₆

3.6π×10¹⁴J

2π×7.2π×10¹⁴J

1.8π×10¹⁴J

b² > 3ac