Self Studies

NTSE - SAT-2017

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NTSE - SAT-2017
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Weekly Quiz Competition
  • Question 1
    1 / -0

    Small cut pieces of soft stems are placed in growth medium with the following plant hormones. Which combination of plant hormones will show the slowest growth?

    Solution

    'ABA' plays a regulatory role in many physiological processes in plants. Abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor. It slows plant growth. Hence, the combination will show the slowest growth.

     

  • Question 2
    1 / -0

    Which of the following demonstrate the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

    Solution

    Cardiac muscles are involuntary, branched, cylindrical and uninucleated.

     

  • Question 3
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    An animal kept in a jar has the following features:

    I. It is bilaterally symmetrical.
    II. It has coelomic cavity.
    III. The body is segmented.
    IV. It has jointed appendages.

    To which phylum does the animal belong?

    Solution

    Arthropoda: It is a phylum of triploblastic, haemocoelomic, bilateral symmetry, segmented invertebrates having head, thorax and abdomen, a chitinous exoskeleton and jointed legs and appendages.

     

  • Question 4
    1 / -0

    Read the following statements and select the correct option.

    Statement - I: Nostoc and Bacteria are prokaryotes.
    Statement - II: Penicillium and Spirogyra are fungi.

    Solution

    Spirogyra is a filamentous green algae that can often form green aggregates in freshwater ponds.

     

  • Question 5
    1 / -0

    You find a herbaceous flowering plant growing in your school garden having leaves with parallel venation.

    Out of the following, choose the correct additional features the given plant would be possessing.

    (I) It has no secondary vascular tissues.
    (II) Its flower possesses three sepals.
    (III) It possesses tap root.
    (IV) Its embryo has 2 cotyledons.

    Solution

    The characteristics given in the question are that of a monocot plant. There are no secondary vascular tissues in a monocot plant. Flower parts are present in multiples of three in monocots.

     

  • Question 6
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    Varieties of vegetables such as cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower have been produced from a wild cabbage species. Such process of producing new varieties of living organisms is called

    Solution

    Artificial selection is the intentional reproduction of individuals in a population that have desirable traits. Example includes the production of cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower from a wild cabbage species.

     

  • Question 7
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    Which of the following are pairs of analogous organs?

    (I) Forelimbs of horse — Wings of bat
    (II) Wings of bat — Wings of butterfly
    (III) Forelimbs of horse — Wings of butterfly
    (IV) Wings of bird — Wings of bat

    Solution

    Analogous organs are organs with different structure and same function. An example of an analogous trait would be the wings of insects, bats and birds that evolved independently but all of these perform the same function of flying.

     

  • Question 8
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    Which of the following organisms is used as a biopesticide?

    Solution

    Trichoderma is a fungus that is also used as a fungicide. It is used for foliar application, seed treatment and soil treatment for suppression of various disease-causing fungal pathogens.The other three are used as biofertilisers.

     

  • Question 9
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    A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a dwarf plant (tt). All F1 plants showed tall phenotype. Which of the following correctly defines a test cross?

    Solution

    In a test cross, F1 hybrid is crossed back with the recessive parent. In other words, test cross is the cross between a dominant phenotype (TT or Tt of first filial generation) and a homozygous recessive parent (tt).

     

  • Question 10
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    Which of the following pairs of causative agent and type of disease are correct?

    (I) Leishmania – Sleeping sickness
    (II) Nematode – Elephantiasis
    (III) Trypanosoma – Kala azar
    (IV) Staphylococcus – Acne

    Solution

    Wuchereria brancrofti is a nematode which causes Elephantiasis. The major causal organism of acne is Staphylococcus bacteria.

     

  • Question 11
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    Pancreatic juice contains more than one enzyme. Which among the following combinations is correct?

    Solution

    Pancreatic juice is a liquid secreted by the pancreas, which contains a variety of enzymes, including trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, elastase, carboxypeptidase, pancreatic lipase, nucleases and amylase. Pepsin is not present in pancreatic juice.

     

  • Question 12
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    You discover a new species of a plant. You also discover that it produces motile sperms and dominant generation has diploid cells. It belongs to

    Solution

    All pteridophytes have a true alternation of generations, in which a dominant sporophyte generation (diploid) produces spores through meiosis, and a free-living gametophyte generation forms gametes (egg and sperm) by mitosis. The sperms are motile in pteridophytes.

     

  • Question 13
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    At every 20 mintues, one bacterium divides into two. How many bacteria will be produced after two hours, if one starts with 10 bacteria?

    Solution

    Given time → 120 minutes (2 hours)
    Number of bacteria given → 10
    Each bacteria divides into two after 20 minutes.
    So in 2 hours, the bacteria will divide 6 times.
    After 120 minutes → 640 bacteria [26 x 10] will be produced.

     

  • Question 14
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    A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Which of the following is a solution?

    Solution

    Out of the following, brass (alloy) is a homogeneous mixture of two metals named copper (70%) and zinc (30%). While milk, smoke and face cream are examples of heterogeneous mixtures because they are colloidal and their components are separated by physical means.

     

  • Question 15
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    Which of the following statements is incorrect about graphite and diamond?

    Solution

    (1) Graphite is soft and slippery because there are only weak intermolecular forces between its layers.
    (2) Graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity because it contains delocalised electrons. These electrons are free to move through the structure of the graphite.
    (3) Diamond is a good conductor of heat because all the electrons are close together due to a strong bond between the atoms causing vibrations.
    (4) Both diamond and graphite are allotropes of carbon. They have different physical properties as both have different structures but same chemical properties.

     

  • Question 16
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    A compound 'X' reacts with a compound 'Y', to produce a colourless and odourless gas. The gas turns lime water milky. When 'X reacts with methanol in the presences of concentrated H2SO4, a sweet smelling substance is produced. The molecular formula of the compound 'X' is

    Solution

    According to the given information,
    X + Y → colourless and odourless gas which turns lime water milky
    Therefore, evolved gas is CO2.
    and X + CH3OH → sweet smelling substance (ester)
    Hence, 'X' should be carboxylic acid which reacts with alcohol in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to give sweet smelling ester through esterification reaction.
    Among the given, C2H4Ois the molecular formula of acetic acid (CH3COOH).

     

  • Question 17
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    A source produces sound waves under water. Waves travel through water and then into air. Which of the following statements about the frequency (f) and the wavelength (λ) is correct as sound passes from water to air?

    Solution

    Frequency of a source remains constant as it depends on the source itself.

    Speed of the sound in water is more than the speed in air. So, water acts as a rare medium and air acts as a denser medium for sound.

    So, when sound travels from water to air, the wavelength will decrease as speed is given by v = λf.

     

  • Question 18
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    The sum of all the possible remainders, which can be obtained when the cube of a natural number is divided by 9, is

    Solution

    Possible remainders for natural number =

    ⇒ 13 = 1 → r1 = 1
    ⇒ 23 = 8 → r2 = 8
    ⇒ 33 = 27 → r= 0
    ⇒ 43 = 64 → r4 = 1
    ⇒ 53 = 125 → r5 = 8
    ⇒ 63 = 216 → r6 = 0

    Hence sum all possible remainders = 1 + 8 = 9

     

  • Question 19
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    When a polynomial p(x) is divided by (x – 1), the remainder is 3. When p(x) is divided by (x – 3), the remainder is 5. If r(x) is the remainder when p(x) is divided by (x – 1)(x – 3), then the value of r(–2) is

    Solution

    p(x) = q(x) (x – 1) + 3 (given)
    p(x) = k(x) (x – 3) + 5 (given)
    Also, p(x) = (x – 1)(x – 3) + r(x)
    For x = 1,
    p(1) = r(3)
    ⇒ 3 = r(1)
    For x = 3,
    ⇒ p(3) = r(3)
    5 = r(3)
    Suppose r(x) = Ax + B
    r(1) = A + B = 3
    and, r(3) = 3A + B = 5
    ∴ A = 1 and B = 2
    r(x) = Ax + B
    ⇒ r(–2) = –2A + B
    ⇒ r(–2) = –2(1) + 2
    ⇒ r(–2) = –2 + 2
    ⇒ r(–2) = 0

     

  • Question 20
    1 / -0

    If the quadratic equation x2 + bx + 72 = 0 has two distinct integer roots, then the number of all possible values for 'b' is

    Solution
    α β B
    1 72 -73
    2 36 -38
    3 24 -27
    4 18 -22
    6 12 -18
    8 9 -17

    Possible roots for α,β ∈ -ve.

    α β B
    -1 -72 73
    -2 -36 38
    -3 -24 27
    -4 -18 22
    -6 -12 18
    -8 -9 17

    So, the total possible values of 'b' will be 12.

     

  • Question 21
    1 / -0

    Shyam wants to make a solid brick shape structure from 400 wooden cubes of unit volume each. If the sides of the solid brick have the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then the maximum number of cubes, which can be used, will be

    Solution

    Let sides of the solid brick be x, 2x and 3x.
    Volume = Number of bricks = 6x3
    Let
    x = 1, 6 × 1 = 6
    x = 2, 6 × 8 = 48
    x = 3, 6 × 27 = 222
    x = 4, 6 × 64 = 384
    x = 5, 6 × 125 = 750
    At x = 5, number of cubes is going above 400.
    Hence maximum number used = 384.

     

  • Question 22
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    On dividing 2272 as well as 875 by a 3-digit number N, we get the same remainder in each case. The sum of the digits of N is

    Solution

    For same remainder 2272 - 875 is divisible by that number
    ⇒ 2272 – 875 = 1397, is exactly divisible by N.
    Since, 1397 = 11 x 127

    ∴ The required 3–digit number is 127, which is divisible by 1397
    Hence the sum of digits of 127 = 10.

     

  • Question 23
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    The value(s) of k for which x2 + 5kx + k2 + 5 is exactly divisible by (x + 2) but not by (x + 3) is/are

    Solution

    Here, P(x) = x2 + 5kx + k2 + 5
    and P(– 2) = 0
    P(– 3) ≠ 0
    ∴ 4 – 10k + k2 + 5 = 0
    ⇒ k2 – 10k + 9 = 0
    ⇒ (k – 9) (k – 1) = 0
    ⇒ k = 1, 9 …….(1)
    Also, P(– 3) ≠ 0
    ⇒ 9 – 15k + k2 + 5 ≠ 0
    ⇒ k2 – 15k + 14 ≠ 0
     (k – 14)(k – 1) ≠ 0
    ⇒ k ≠14, 1 ..…..(2)
    From (1) and (2), we get
    k = 9

     

  • Question 24
    1 / -0

    The cost of two apples, three bananas and one coconut is Rs. 26. Also, the cost of three apples, two bananas and two coconuts is Rs. 35. Then, the cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconuts is

    Solution

    Suppose price of apples, bananas and coconuts be x, y and z, respectively.
    2x + 3y + z = 26 .……(1)
    3x + 2y + 2z = 35 …….(2)
    (1) × 3, (2) × 2
    12x + 13y + 7z = 78

    Therefore, the cost of 12 apples, 13 bananas and 7 coconuts is Rs. 148.

     

  • Question 25
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    Arrange the developments related to European history in a chronological sequence.

    I. Napoleon invaded Italy.
    II. Unification of Italy.
    III. Unification of Germany.
    IV. Vienna Settlement.

    Solution

    Napoleon invaded Italy - 1797
    Vienna Settlement - 1814
    Unification of Italy.- 1859
    Unification of Germany - 1866

     

  • Question 26
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    Which of the following statements about Liberals in the 19th century Europe are correct?

    I. They favoured the Catholic Church.
    II. They opposed dynastic rule with unlimited power.
    III. They were democrats.
    IV. They did not want any voting rights for women.

    Solution

    Liberals wanted a nation which tolerated all religions since European states discriminated in favour of one religion or the other. Liberals opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. They wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals against governments. They argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials. However, they were not democrats. They did not believe in universal adult franchise. They also did not want the women to vote.

     

  • Question 27
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    I. In the beginning Bombay was under the Portuguese control.
    II. Control of Bombay passed onto the French in the 17th century.
    III. The Marathas replaced the French in Bombay.
    IV. Bombay became the capital of the Presidency in early 19th century.

    Solution

    In the seventeenth century, Bombay was a group of seven islands under Portuguese control. In 1661, control of the islands was passed into British hands after the marriage of Britain's King Charles II to the Portuguese princess.

     

  • Question 28
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    Which of the following statements are correct?

    I. The Chinese introduced printing.
    II. The Buddhist missionaries introduced printing in Japan.
    III. The Chinese developed printing to facilitate their expanding trade.
    IV. Printing reached Europe through Italy.

    Solution

    Option 3 is wrong because Chinese did not developed printing to facilitate their trade

     

  • Question 29
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    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: During the years of the Great Depression the economic crisis was worse in Germany.
    Statement II: The President of the Weimar Republic had the power to impose emergency.

    Solution

    The impact of the Great Depression was particularly severe in Germany, which had enjoyed five years of artificial prosperity, propped up by American loans and goodwill. Unemployment hit millions of Germans, as companies shut down or downsized. Others lost their savings as banks folded.

    The Weimar Republic was very fragile due to some inherent defects, one of which was Article 48, which gave the President the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.

    Both statements are true, but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

     

  • Question 30
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    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I : The Forest Act of 1878 categorized some forests as 'reserved forests'.
    Statement II : They were considered the best forests for people's use.

    Solution

    The 1878 Act divided forests into three categories: reserved, protected and village forests. The best forests were called 'reserved forests'. Villagers could not take anything from these forests, even for their own use. For house building or fuel, they could take wood from protected or village forests.

    They were known as Best forests but they were not intended for people's use. Hence statement II is false.

     

  • Question 31
    1 / -0

    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: Shifting cultivation was widely prevalent in different parts of India in the 19th century.
    Statement II: More and more people took to shifting cultivation when forest laws were enacted.

    Solution

    Shifting cultuivation was banned after forest laws were enacted

     

  • Question 32
    1 / -0

    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: Cricket emerged as a colonial game.
    Statement II: Cricket was started in England.

    Solution

    Cricket was a colonial game, limited to countries that had once been part of the British empire. It was started in England. The pre-industrial oddness of cricket made it a hard game to export. It took root only in countries that the British conquered and ruled.

     

  • Question 33
    1 / -0

    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: Mahatma Gandhi wished everyone had clothes to wear.
    Statement II: He wanted everyone to wear the single loincloth as he did.

    Solution

    Mahatma Gandhi wanted everyone to have clothes but not loincloth. He discarded his topi and vest and contended himself with loincloth. But he did not want to use this dress all his life and only wanted to 'experiment for a month or two'. But soon he saw this as his duty to the poor, and he never wore any other dress. He consciously rejected the well known clothes of the Indian ascetic and adopted the dress of the poorest Indian.

     

  • Question 34
    1 / -0

    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: The Spanish conquest of America was not a conventional military conquest.
    Statement II: One of the most powerful weapon was the spread of smallpox.

    Solution

    The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors was not a conventional military weapon at all. It was the germs such as those of smallpox that they carried on their person. Because of their long isolation, America's original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that came from Europe. Smallpox in particular proved a deadly killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any Europeans reaching there. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.

     

  • Question 35
    1 / -0

    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: The silk routes led to trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
    Statement II: Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia through this route.

    Solution

    The silk routes are a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world. Early Christian missionaries almost certainly travelled this route to Asia, as did early Muslim preachers a few centuries later.

     

  • Question 36
    1 / -0

    Directions For Questions

    Directions: Read the statements and select the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
    2. Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
    3. Both Statements are true, and Statement II provides explanation to Statement I.
    4. Both Statements are true, but Statement II does not provide explanation of Statement I.

    ...view full instructions

    Statement I: The French used forced labour in Indo-China for building canals.
    Statement II: Vietnam became a major exporter of rice in the world.

    Solution

    The French built canals and draining lands in the Mekong Delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market. Vietnam exported two-thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world.

    Both statements are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

     

  • Question 37
    1 / -0

    Match List I (Layers of Atmosphere) and List II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    List I (Layer of Atmosphere) List II (Characteristics)
    (A) Ionosphere (I) Contains Ozone
    (B) Stratosphere (II) Reflects radio Waves
    (C) Exosphere (Ill) Fall in Temperature
    (D) Troposphere (IV) Extremely low air density
    Solution
    (A) Ionosphere (II) Reflects radio Waves
    (B) Stratosphere (I) Contains Ozone
    (C) Exosphere (IV) Extremely low air density
    (D) Troposphere (Ill) Fall in Temperature

     

  • Question 38
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    I. Rann of Kachchh is formed by the recession of the sea.
    II. Kuchaman, Sambhar and Didwana are salt water lakes.
    III. The land to the east of Aravallis is known as Bagar.
    IV. The fertile flood plains formed by small streams in Rajasthan are known as Rohi.

    Solution

    Bagar lies to the West of Aravallis

     

  • Question 39
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    Match List I (Original Rock) with List II (Metamorphic Rock) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List I (Original Rock) List II (Metamorphic Rock)
    (A) Granite (I) Diamond
    (B) Coal (II) Marble
    (C) Limestone (Ill) Slate
    (D) Shale (IV) Gneiss
  • Question 40
    1 / -0

    Match List I (Mineral Oil Refineries) with List II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List I (Mineral Oil Refineries) List II (States)
    (A) Numaligarh Refinery, Numaligarh (I) Punjab
    (B) Guru Gobind Singh Refinery, Bathinda (II) Andhra Pradesh
    (C) Tatipaka Mini Refinery, Tatipaka (Ill) Madhya Pradesh
    (D) Bina Refinery, Bina (IV) Assam
    Solution
    (A) Numaligarh Refinery, Numaligarh (IV) Assam
    (B) Guru Gobind Singh Refinery, Bathinda (I) Punjab
    (C) Tatipaka Mini Refinery, Tatipaka (II) Andhra Pradesh
    (D) Bina Refinery, Bina (Ill) Madhya Pradesh

    The Numaligarh Refinery is located at Morangi, Golaghat district, Assam in India. The refinery is owned by Numaligarh Refinery Limited, a joint venture between Bharat Petroleum (61.65%), Oil India (26%) and Govt of Assam (12.35%).
    Guru Gobind Singh Refinery (GGSR) is a refinery owned by HPCL-Mittal Energy Limited (HMEL) a joint venture between HPCL and Mittal Energy Investment Pte Ltd, Singapore, a company owned by L N Mittal. It is located in village Phulokhari, Bathinda, Punjab, India. It is the fifth biggest refinery in India.
    Tatipaka Mini Refinery was ONGC's first-ever oil refinery. The refinery has been set up at Tatipaka in the East Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh. This was ONGC's first venture of producing petro-products through distillation of crude oil. The refinery is designed to produce naphtha, kerosene, diesel and reduced crude oil.
    Bina Refinery is an oil refinery located at Bina in Bina of district sagar of Madhya Pradesh state. The refinery is owned and operated by Bharat Oman Refineries Limited (BORL). BORL is promoted by Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL).

     

  • Question 41
    1 / -0

    Match List I (Industries) with List II (Important Centers) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List I (Industries) List II (Important Centers)
    (A) Cotton textile (I) Ludhiana
    (B) Hosiery (II) Rishra
    (C) Jute (Ill) Coimbatore
    (D) Silk textile (IV) Mysuru
    Solution
    (A) Cotton textile (Ill) Coimbatore
    (B) Hosiery (I) Ludhiana
    (C) Jute (II) Rishra
    (D) Silk textile (IV) Mysuru

     

  • Question 42
    1 / -0

    Which one of the following islands is closest to the equator?

    Solution

    Great Nicobar is closest to the equator.

     

  • Question 43
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    Which of the following characteristics are true about plantation agriculture?

    I. Generally plantation agriculture is considered as an example of subsistence farming.
    II. Generally single crop is grown on a large area in plantation agriculture.
    III. It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
    IV. It uses capital intensive inputs.

    Solution

    Plantation is a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers. All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries.

     

  • Question 44
    1 / -0

    Match List I (Vegetation zones) with List II (Mean Annual Temperature Range) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List I (Vegetation Zones) List II (Mean Annual Temperature Range)
    (A) Alpine (I) Above 24oC
    (B) Temperate (II) 17o to 24oC
    (C) Tropical (Ill) Below 7oC
    (D) Sub-tropical (IV) 7oC to 17oC
    Solution
    (A) Alpine (Ill) Below 7oC
    (B) Temperate (IV) 7oC to 17oC
    (C) Tropical (I) Above 24oC
    (D) Sub-tropical (II) 17o to 24oC

     

  • Question 45
    1 / -0

    'In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme.' Which of the following statements concerning democracy in India best reflects this?

    Solution

    Out of the given options only option 2 relates to 'In a ademocracy the will of people is supreme'

     

  • Question 46
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements about the Panchayati Raj Institutions after the Constitutional Amendment in 1992 are false?

    I. Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in the elected bodies of the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
    II. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are supervised by the Election Commission of India.
    III. Elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions are held regularly after every five years.
    IV. Half of the seats in all the States are reserved for women.

    Solution

    At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
    An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.

     

  • Question 47
    1 / -0

    Match List I (Political Systems) with List II (Nations) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    List I (Political Systems) List II (Nations)
    (A) Federal, Presidential, Republic (I) India
    (B) Federal, Parliamentary, Republic (II) United Kingdom
    (C) Unitary, Parliamentary, Monarchy (Ill) Germany
    (D) Presidential cum Parliamentary, Republic (IV) United States of America
      (V) France
    Solution
    (A) Federal, Presidential, Republic (IV) United States of America
    (B) Federal, Parliamentary, Republic (I) India
    (C) Unitary, Parliamentary, Monarchy (II) United Kingdom
    (D) Presidential cum Parliamentary, Republic (V) France

     

  • Question 48
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements about the federal system in India are true?

    I. The Constitution of India provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the State Government.
    II. Both the Union and the State Governments can legislate on residuary subjects.
    III. The Parliament cannot on its own change the power-sharing arrangement between the Union and the State Governments.
    IV. The High Courts have no role in resolving disputes about the division of powers between the Union and the State Governments.

    Solution

    According to our Constitution, the Union Government has the power to legislate on these 'residuary' subjects.
    The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures. In case of any dispute about the division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision.

     

  • Question 49
    1 / -0

    Which of the following groups of States/Union Territories has only one Lok Sabha constituency?

    Solution

    Chandigarh, Sikkim, Mizoram have one Lok Sabha Constituency>

    Arunachal Pradesh - (2), Lakshadweep (1), Goa (2), Meghalaya (2), Andaman and Nicobar (1), Manipur (2), Dadra and Nagar Haveli (1), Puducherry (1)

     

  • Question 50
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements best reflects the 'socialist' feature of the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

    Solution

    The socialist feature of the Preamble of Indian Constitution is reflected by the statement that Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

     

  • Question 51
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements about the Indian judiciary is true?

    Solution

    India has an integrated judiciary. It means the Supreme Court controls the judicial administration in the country. Its decisions are binding on all other courts of the country. It is not under the control of executive or legislature. The judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

     

  • Question 52
    1 / -0

    Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the Right to Education?

    Solution

    Right to education is a part of Right to Freedom (Article 21A).

     

  • Question 53
    1 / -0

    Which of the following is NOT an indicator of economic development?

    Solution

    Women participation in job market is not a criteria to indicate economic development.

     

  • Question 54
    1 / -0

    The poverty line in Dinanagar is set at Rs. 100 per capita per day. Five Hundred people live in Dinanagar of whom 50 earn Rs. 30 per capita per day and another 25 earn Rs. 80 per capita per day each. Everybody else earn more than Rs. 100 per day per capita. What is the minimum amount that the government of Dinanagar will have to spend to completely eradicate poverty?

    Solution

    Fifty people are earning Rs. 30. In which govt. has to add Rs. 70 to reach the set per capita target of Rs. 100, whereas 25 people need Rs. 20 more to reach the target hence the total money to be spent by State govt. will be Rs. 4000.

     

  • Question 55
    1 / -0

    The local telephone company sells me a landline connection only if I purchase a handset from them as well. Which of the following rights does this practice violate under the Consumer Protection Act 1986?

    Solution

    Any consumer who receives a service in whatever capacity, regardless of age, gender and nature of service, has the right to choose whether to continue to receive the service.

    Here the right to choose has been violated under the Consumer Protection Act 1986.

     

  • Question 56
    1 / -0

    Match List-I (Type of Unemployment) with List-Il (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    List-I (Type of Unemployment List-Il (Characteristics)
    A. Seasonal I. Occurs during boom or recession in the economy
    B. Frictional II. An absence of demand for a certain type of workers
    C. Disguised III. Occurs when moving from one job to another
    D. Structural IV. Actual contribution by the additional labour is nil
    E. Cyclical V. Job opportunities during certain months in the year
    Solution
    A. Seasonal V. Job opportunities during certain months in the year
    B. Frictional III. Occurs when moving from one job to another
    C. Disguised IV. Actual contribution by the additional labour is nil
    D. Structural II. An absence of demand for a certain type of workers
    E. Cyclical I. Occurs during boom or recession in the economy

     

  • Question 57
    1 / -0

    Suppose Indian farmers sell wheat at Rs. 50 per kg and the international price of wheat is Rs.40 per kg. What minimum rate of import duty must the Government of India impose on imported wheat, so that it does not adversely affect Indian farmers in the domestic market?

    Solution

    Rs. 10 per kg is to be increased so as to compete with international market. Rs. 10 is 25% of Rs. 40.

     

  • Question 58
    1 / -0

    The wage rate of a worker in a country is Rs. 300 per day. Which of these person(s) would you consider unemployed?

    (1) Ramu is willing to work at Rs. 300 a day, but cannot find work.
    (2) Suresh is willing to work only at Rs. 400 a day or more, and cannot find work.
    (3) Shanti stays at home because she has young children to look after.

    Solution

    Ramu is unemployed in this case as he is not getting work at the present wages.

     

  • Question 59
    1 / -0

    Which of the following can be used as collateral in Indian banks to borrow money?

    Solution

    Own house mortgage is used as collateral in India.

     

  • Question 60
    1 / -0

    The total agricultural land in a village is 1200 hectares. This is distributed among 320 families who form four groups in the following pattern. It is assumed that the land is distributed equally within each group. Identify the group of small farmers.

    Group Number of Families Total amount of land owned and operated by each group (in hectares)
    A 100 300
    B 180 300
    C 30 300
    D 10 300
    Solution

    B is the group of small farmers as (300/180) would be the land available to each of the family.

     

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