NTSE - SAT-PB-2013

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Question 1
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Which of the following structural features are common in an animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium?

A
Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles

B
Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria

C
Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm

D
Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes

Question 2
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A plant that has well differentiated body, special tissues for transport of water and other substances, but does not have seed or fruits is a/an

A
Bryophyte

B
Angiosperm

C
Gymnosperm

D
Pteridophyte

Question 3
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Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain. The doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from peptic ulcer and treated him with antibiotics. He was relieved of the pain. What could be the reason for peptic ulcer?

A
Reduced secretion of hormones

B
Reduced water content

C
Growth of Helicobacter pylori

D
Excess secretion of enzymes

Question 4
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The average temperature of the Earth remains fairly steady as compared to that of the moon because of the

A
atmosphere

B
lithosphere

C
biosphere

D
hydrosphere

Question 5
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In flowers, which of the following conditions will increase chances of self-pollination?

A
Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower.

B
Stamens are just above the stigma of a pistil in a flower.

C
In all flowers of the plant, only pistil is present.

D
In all flowers of the plant, only stamens are present.

Question 6
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A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB' because it

A
has both 'A' and 'B' antigens

B
has only 'A' antigen and 'B' antibodies

C
has only 'B' antigen and 'A' antibodies

D
does not have any antigens and antibodies

Question 7
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What would happen to a person if cerebellum of his brain is damaged?

A
He will lose his memory power.

B
He will not be able to swallow food properly.

C
He will be unable to coordinate and stand properly.

D
He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.

Question 8
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Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation.
B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation.
C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.
D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.

A
A and B

B
B and C

C
C and D

D
D and A

Question 9
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A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny.

Crows on the tree eat beetles.

Some green beetles appear among the red beetle because

A
beetles become green by accumulating chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat.

B
natural variations occur during sexual reproduction.

C
red beetles mimic green colour of leaves whenever they see crows.

D
beetles change colour from red to green with change of season.

Question 10
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A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny.

Crows on the tree eat beetles.

The colour composition of beetle population is likely to change in the following manner:

A
Both red and green beetle survive equally.

B
Only the red beetle survives.

C
More red beetles survive than the green.

D
More green beetles survive than the red.

Question 11
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Non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such as DDT enters the food chain, the pollutant

A
magnifies in concentration at each trophic level

B
'degrades at first trophic level

C
accumulates in the body fat of organism at first trophic level and does not pass to second trophic level

D
decreases in concentration at each trophic level

Question 12
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A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating liquids A and B at a temperature of 22°C are placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid B. Which of the following can be said about the liquids A and B?

A
Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of liquid B.

B
Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

C
Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

D
The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal.

Question 13
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There is a mixture of three solid compounds A, B and C. Out of these compounds, A and C are soluble in water, while B is insoluble, and C is sublimable also. In what sequence can the following techniques be used for their effective separation?

I. Filtration
II. Sublimation
Ill. Crystallisation from water extract
IV. Dissolution in water

A
(II), (I). (IV), (Ill)

B
(IV), (I), (II), (III)

C
(I), (II), (III), (IV)

D
(II), (IV), (I), (III)

Question 14
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An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell. What is true about the element X?

I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic table.
II. Its atom contains 9 protons.
III. It has a valency of 7.
IV. Its atoms can accept an electron to acquire noble gas configuration.

A
(I) and (II)

B
(II) and (Ill)

C
(III) and (IV)

D
(Il) and (IV)

Question 15
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A salt can be produced by reaction between

A. an acid and a base
B. metal oxide and water
C. metal and a mineral acid
D. metal oxide and a mineral acid

A
A, B and C

B
B, C and D

C
C, D and A

D
D, A and B

Question 16
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Which of the following is true about the two statements?

Statement I : Reactivity of aluminium decreases when it is dipped in nitric acid.
Statement II: A protective layer of aluminium nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in nitric acid.

A
I is correct but II is incorrect.

B
I is incorrect but Il is correct.

C
Both the statements are correct and II is also the correct explanation of I.

D
Both the statements are correct but II is not correct explanation of I.

Question 17
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Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon will undergo combustion as well as addition reactions?

A
CH₄ and C₂H₆

B
C₂H₆O and C₃H₈O

C
C₂H₄O₂ and C₃H₆O

D
C₂H₂ and C₃H₆

Question 18
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An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with another element Y (atomic number 17) to form a compound Z. Which of the following statements are true regarding this compound?

I. Molecular formula of Z is XY₂
II. It is soluble in water
III. X and Y are joined by sharing of electrons
IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten state

A
(II) and (III)

B
(I) and (III)

C
(I), (III) and (IV)

D
(II) and (IV)

Question 19
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A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which is flat and measured several times over a large area, One day the reflected sound wave takes longer time than in previous measurements. The possible reason is

A
the frequency of the sonar wave, generated by the equipment is lower than previous measurements

B
there is a solid object of large size in the path of sonar wave

C
there is a huge air bubble in the path of sonar wave

D
the loudness of the sonar wave, generated by the equipment is lower than previous measurement

Question 20
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A concave lens always gives a virtual image. In optical lenses worn by humans which of the following statements is true?

A
The lens can never be concave.

B
In some cases the lens can be concave if the focal length is much larger than 2.5 cm.

C
All focal length concave lenses are possible.

D
All focal length convex lenses are possible.

Question 21
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A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around earth at height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the earth is taken as 6000 km. The geo-stationary satellite comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly 24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s² and mass of satellite be 1000 kg; calculate the work done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational force.

A
3.6π×10¹⁴J

B
2π×7.2π×10¹⁴ J

C
1.87π×10¹⁴ J

D
0 J

Question 22
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A has a pair of triangles corresponding sides proportional, and B has a pair of pentagons with corresponding sides proportional,
S₁ ≡ " A`s triangles must be similar
S₂ ≡ " B`s pentagons must be similar
Which of the following statement is correct?

A
S₁ is true but S₂ is not true

B
S₂ is true, but S₁ is not ture

C
Both S₁ and S₂ are true

D
Neither S₁ nor S₂ is true

Question 23
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Which of the following numbers is the fourth power of a natural number?

A
6765201

B
6765206

C
6765207

D
6765209

Question 24
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The square of an odd integer must be of the form:

A
6n + 1

B
6n + 3

C
8n + 1

D
4n + 1 but may not be 8n + 1

Question 25
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The value of tan 1º tan 2º tan 3º …. tan89º is:

A
0

B
1

C
2

D
3

Question 26
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ax² + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has real roots if :

A
a, b, c are integers

B
b² > 3ac

C
ac > 0 and b is zero

D
c = 0

Question 27
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An open box A is made from a square piece of tin by cutting equal squares S at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. Another open box B is made similarly using one of the squares S. If U and V are the volumes of A and B respectively, then which of the following is not possible?

A
U > V

B
V > U

C
U = V

D
Minimum value of U > maximum value of V

Question 28
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Which of the following statements holds always?

A
Every rectangle is a square.

B
Every parallelogram is a trapezium.

C
Every rhombus is a square.

D
Every parallelogram is a rectangle.

Question 29
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Which of the following polygons are uniquely determined when all the sides are give?

A
Quadrilateral

B
Triangle

C
Pentagon

D
Haxagon

Question 30
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One integer is chosen out of I, 2, 3, …., 100. What is the probability that it is neither divisible by 4 nor by 6

A
0.59

B
0.67

C
0.41

D
0.33

Question 31
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A solid metal sphere of surface area S₁ is melted and recast into a number of smaller spheres. S₂ is the sum of the surface areas of all the smaller spheres. Then

A
S₁ > S₂

B
S₂ > S₁

C
S₁ = S₂

D
S₁ = S₂ only if all the smaller spheres of equal radii

Question 32
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Re. 1 and Rs. 5 coins are available (as many required). Find the smallest payment which cannot be made by these coins, if not more than 5 coins are allowed.

A
3

B
12

C
14

D
18

Question 33
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Median of a data number which has number of observations below and above it. The median set is a an equal below and of the data

1, 9, 4, 3, 7, 6, 8, 8, 12, 15 is

A
7.5

B
7

C
8

D
Any number between 7 and 8

Question 34
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From about 13^th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be followed strictly to :

A
Regulate the behaviour of the royalty

B
Regulate the income of people by social rank

C
Control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors

D
Provide religious sanctity to social behaviour

Question 35
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Choose the correct response from the given options.

On 3^rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed to:

(a) establish dictatorship in Germany.
(b) give Hitler the power to rule by decree.
(c) ban all trade unions.
(d) ban all political parties and their affiliates.

A
only a and b are correct

B
only c and d are correct

C
a, b and c are correct

D
only d is correct

Question 36
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Enclosures in England were seen as:

A
hindrance to agricultural expansion and crop rotation.

B
hindrance to commercialization of agriculture.

C
necessary to make long-term investment on land, agriculture and to plan crop rotation to improve the soil.

D
necessary to protect the interests of those who depended on the commons for their survival.

Question 37
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The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region comprising

A
Romania, Germany, Poland and Bulgaria

B
Romania, Prussia, Greece, Croatia and Serbia

C
Serbia, Austria, Bulgaria, Slovakia and Poland

D
Serbia, Bulgaria, Greece, Croatia and Romania

Question 38
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What was Rinderpest?

A
A disease of cattle plagues that spread in Africa in the 1890s.

B
Bubonic plague which spread in the region of Maharashtra in the l890s.

C
A type of cholera that spread in Assarn in the I 890s.

D
A devastating bird disease that was imported to Italy from British Asia through chicken meat.

Question 39
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Which of the following is a correct match?

A
Rashsundari Debi - Istri Dharma Vichar

B
Ram Chadda - Amar Jiban

C
Kashibaba - Chote Aur Bade ka Sawaal

D
Sudarshan Chakra - Gulamgiri

Question 40
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Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God?

A
Martin Luther

B
Menocchio

C
Roman Catholic Church

D
Gutenberg

Question 41
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The forest Act of 1878 divided forests into:

A
reserved and protected forests

B
protected and village forests

C
bio-sphere reserves and wild life sanctuaries

D
reserved, protected and village forests

Question 42
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Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:

Statement I: Hitler said `In may state the mother is the most important citizen`.
Statement II: In Nazi Germany while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel hearted; girls were told that they had to become good mothers.

A
Statement I is true but statement II is false.

B
Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

C
Both the statements are False.

D
Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Question 43
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:

Statement I: The major cricket tournament of colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not represent regions but religious communities.
Statement II: The victory of the 'Hindus' in the 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's war on 'untouchability'.

A
Statement I is true but statement II is false.

B
Statement I is false but statement II is true.

C
Both statement I and statement II are true and II is correct explanation of statement I.

D
Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.

Question 44

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Match the following columns:

	Column A		Column B
(I)	Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association	(A)	December, 1929
(II)	Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement	(B)	August, 1930
(III)	Gandhiji ended the Civil Disobedience Movement	(C)	March, 1930
(IV)	Congress adopted the demand for `Purna Swaraj`	(D)	March, 1931

(I) - (C), (II) - (D), (III) - (B), (IV) - (A)

(I) - (B), (II) - (C), (III) - (D), (IV) - (A)

(I) - (C), (II) - (A), (III) - (B), (IV) - (D)

(I) - (D), (II) - (C), (III) - (B), (IV) - (A)

Question 45
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:

Statement I: The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great Britain".
Statement II: The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.

A
Both statement I and statement II are false.

B
Both statement I and statement II are true and statement II is the result of statement I.

C
Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D
Both statement I and statement II are true but statement II is not a result of statement I.

Question 46
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Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:

Statement I: Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled.
Statement II: Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily.
Statement III: Potato reached the West through travellers and became the staple diet of the poor.

A
Statement I and statement III are true.

B
Statement II and statement III are ture.

C
All three statements are true.

D
Statement I and statement II are true.

Question 47
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Assertion (A): Gandhijis idea of satyagraha emphasised on the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
Reasoning (R): Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
A is true and R is false.

B
Both A and R are true but R not the correct explanation of A.

C
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

D
Both A and R are false.

Question 48
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Assertion (A): The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement.
Reason (R): People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B
Both A and R are false.

C
A is false but R is true.

D
Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 49
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Assertion (A) :Coal is a fossil fuel.
Reason(R) : It is formed due to compression of inorganic material over millions of years.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

C
(A) is true and (R) is false

D
(A) is false and (R) is true

Question 50
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Assertion (A) : The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat.
Reason(R) :Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

B
Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

C
(A) is true and (R) is false

D
(A) is false and (R) is true

Question 51
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Assertion (A) : In India, east coast has more seaports than the west coast.
Reason(R) : The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

C
(A) is true and (R) is false

D
(A) is false and (R) is true

Question 52
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Assertion (A) : The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter.
Reason (R) : The winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

B
Both (A) and (R), are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

C
(A) is true and (R) is false

D
(A) is false and (R) is true

Question 53
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Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?

A
Chennai, Tuticorin, Mangalore, Marmagao

B
Kolkata, Chennai, Mangalore, Mumbai

C
Marmagao, Mumbai, Kandla, Mangalore

D
Kolata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam, Chennai

Question 54
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Assertion (A):The Himalayan ranges show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra.
Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A).

B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A).

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 55
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Which of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion?

A. Ploughing along contour lines
B. Strip cropping
C. Jhumming
D. Mixed farming

A
A and B

B
A and C

C
B and D

D
B and C

Question 56
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Assertion (A) :Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate.
Reason (R):Himalaya mountain ranges protect it from the northerly cold winds. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explain (A)

B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A)

C
(A) is true and (R) is false.

D
(A) is false and (R) is true.

Question 57
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Which of the following feature has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?

A
Aravalli Range

B
Purvanchal Hills

C
Siwaliks

D
Chotanagpur Plateau

Question 58
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Assertion (A):Sex Ratio in India is low.
Reason (R):Indian society has been unfavourable to females.

Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

A
Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explain (A)

B
Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A)

C
(A) is true and (R) is false

D
(A) is false and (R) is true

Question 59
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A pilot takes off from an airport at 15ºS latitude and flies 55º due North. What latitude the pilot has reached?

A
55ºN

B
40ºN

C
70º N

D
15ºN

Question 60
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Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

A
The Constitution creates a strong Centre.

B
The Constitution provides for a single judiciary.

C
The Constitution provides for a common All India Services.

D
The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of Parliament.

Question 61
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Which of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?

A
No external power can dictate to the Government of India.

B
The head of the State is a hereditary position.

C
All people are equal before law.

D
Citizens have complete freedom to follows any religion.

Question 62
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According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following is `heart and soul` of our Constitution?

A
The Preamble

B
Right to Equality

C
Right against Exploitation

D
Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 63
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Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the following statements support this claim?

A. It is a more accountable form of government.
B. It improves the quality of decision making.
C. It ensures rapid economic development of citizens.
D. It enhances the dignity of citizens.

A
A, B and D

B
A and C

C
A, B and C

D
B, C and D

Question 64
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The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because

A
women are good at managing resources.

B
although women constitute nearly half of the population, they have inadequate representation in decision-making bodies.

C
we have many powerful women leaders.

D
women are obedient and would follow the constitutional provisions well.

Question 65
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In which of the following economies are people more of a resource?

A
Country A with 78% of the working age population illiterate and with very low life expectancy.

B
Country B with 10% of the working age population illiterate and with high life expectancy.

C
Country C with 60% of people in the working age illiterate, but with high life expectancy.

D
Country D with only 10% of population is the working age illiterate, but has very low life expectancy.

Question 66
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Which of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and 2003?

A
The sectorial share of agriculture in employment has decreased far more than its share on total output.

B
The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has decreased, but its share in employment has increased.

C
The sectorial share of agriculture in total output has increased, but its share in employment has decreased.

D
The sectorial share of agriculture in output has decreased far more than its share in total employment.

Question 67
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Which of the following can be considered as Foreign Direct Ins investment made in India?

A. The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad.
B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed company.
C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala.
D. The US multinational Google opens its full-fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.

A
(A) and (D)

B
(A) and (B)

C
(D) only

D
(B) and (C)

Question 68
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We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because

A
It has gold backing

B
The law legalizes it

C
Reserve Bank of India has precious metals against which it prints notes

D
Everyone else accepts it

Question 69
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Which of the following refers to trade barrier in the context of WTO?

I. Restrictions on domestic trade
II. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity
III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods
IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies

A
(I), (II) and (III)

B
(II), (III) and (IV)

C
(III) and (IV)

D
(I), (III) and (IV)

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NTSE - SAT-PB-2...

Question 1

Cell membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles

Cell wall, plasma membrane, mitochondria

Cell wall, nucleus, cytoplasm

Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes

Question 2

Bryophyte

Angiosperm

Gymnosperm

Pteridophyte

Question 3

Reduced secretion of hormones

Reduced water content

Growth of Helicobacter pylori

Excess secretion of enzymes

Question 4

atmosphere

lithosphere

biosphere

hydrosphere

Question 5

Pistil is longer than stamens in a flower.

Stamens are just above the stigma of a pistil in a flower.

In all flowers of the plant, only pistil is present.

In all flowers of the plant, only stamens are present.

Question 6

has both 'A' and 'B' antigens

has only 'A' antigen and 'B' antibodies

has only 'B' antigen and 'A' antibodies

does not have any antigens and antibodies

Question 7

He will lose his memory power.

He will not be able to swallow food properly.

He will be unable to coordinate and stand properly.

He will lose his powers of vision and hearing.

Question 8

A and B

B and C

C and D

D and A

Question 9

beetles become green by accumulating chlorophyll from the green leaves that they eat.

natural variations occur during sexual reproduction.

red beetles mimic green colour of leaves whenever they see crows.

beetles change colour from red to green with change of season.

Question 10

Both red and green beetle survive equally.

Only the red beetle survives.

More red beetles survive than the green.

More green beetles survive than the red.

Question 11

magnifies in concentration at each trophic level

'degrades at first trophic level

accumulates in the body fat of organism at first trophic level and does not pass to second trophic level

decreases in concentration at each trophic level

Question 12

Liquid A has higher boiling point than that of liquid B.

Liquid A has higher latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

Liquid A has lower latent heat of vaporisation than that of liquid B.

The boiling points of liquid A and B are equal.

Question 13

(II), (I). (IV), (Ill)

(IV), (I), (II), (III)

(I), (II), (III), (IV)

(II), (IV), (I), (III)

Question 14

(I) and (II)

(II) and (Ill)

(III) and (IV)

(Il) and (IV)

Question 15

A, B and C

B, C and D

C, D and A

D, A and B

Question 16

I is correct but II is incorrect.

I is incorrect but Il is correct.

Both the statements are correct and II is also the correct explanation of I.

CH₄ and C₂H₆

C₂H₆O and C₃H₈O

C₂H₄O₂ and C₃H₆O

C₂H₂ and C₃H₆

3.6π×10¹⁴J

2π×7.2π×10¹⁴ J

1.87π×10¹⁴ J

S₁ is true but S₂ is not true

S₂ is true, but S₁ is not ture

Both S₁ and S₂ are true

Neither S₁ nor S₂ is true

b² > 3ac