AISSEE Class IX Mock Test

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AISSEE Class IX Mock Test - 1

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Weekly Quiz Competition

Question 1
2.67 / -0

If z denotes a digit in the given number 789z45, such that the number is divisible by 3, then what can be the value of z?

A
0

B
1

C
2

D
5

Solution

Given that 789z45 is a multiple of 3.
So, (7 + 8 + 9 + z + 4 + 5) is a multiple of 3, or (z + 33) is a multiple of 3.
So, z could be 0, 3 , 6 and 9.
From the options we can say z can be 0.
Question 2
2.67 / -0

Which of the following numbers is in standard form?

A

B

C

D

Solution

cannot be further simplified while the numbers in the remaining options can be simplified.
So, is in standard form.
Question 3
2.67 / -0

(2³+ 6) : 4²is same as

A
7 : 6

B
6 : 7

C
7 : 8

D
8 : 7

Solution

2³+ 6 : 4²
= (8 + 6) : 4²
= 14 : 16
= 7 : 8
Question 4
2.67 / -0

Find the value of X, Y and Z in the following and calculate the value of X + Z - Y.

A
12

B
8

C
6

D
4

Solution

Solution is as follows.

X + Y - Z = 8 + 4 - 4 = 8
Question 5
2.67 / -0

Find the simplified form of (x² – 3)(x + 3) + 9.

A
– x(x² + 3x + 3)

B
– x(x² + 3x – 3)

C
x(x² + 3x – 3)

D
x(x² + 3x + 3)

Solution

(x² – 3) (x + 3) + 9
= x³ + 3x² – 3x – 9 + 9
= x³ + 3x² – 3x
= x(x² + 3x – 3)
Question 6
2.67 / -0

The number of edges of triangular prism are

A
5

B
6

C
9

D
14

Solution

The edges of triangular prism are AB, AC, BC, CD, BE, ED, AF, FE and FD.

The triangular prism has 9 edges.
Question 7
2.67 / -0

The mean consumption of petrol of a group of 20 cars is 65 litres. 2 other cars with consumption as 89 litres and 85 litres, respectively were added to the group. What is the new mean consumption for the group of cars?

A
68

B
67

C
69

D
70

Solution

Total consumption of petrol = Mean × Number of cars
Total consumption of petrol of the original group = 65 × 20 = 1300
Total consumption of petrol of the new group = Total consumption of petrol of the original group + Consumption of petrol of the 2 new cars
= 1300 + 89 + 85 = 1474
Number of cars in the new group = Number of cars in the original group + Number of cars from the new data
= 20 + 2 = 22
New average consumption = = 67 litres
Question 8
2.67 / -0

A dice is rolled and a coin is tossed. What is the probability of getting heads and an even number?

A

B

C

D

Solution

Possible outcomes are {(1, H), (2, H), (3, H), (4, H), (5, H), (6, H), (1, T), (2, T), (3, T), (4, T), (5, T), (6, T)}
Favourable outcomes = {(2, H), (4, H), (6, H)}
Hence, required probability = Number of favourable outcomes/Total number of outcomes
Required Probability = =
Question 9
2.67 / -0

What will be the value of 56² - 14²?

A
2940

B
3200

C
3670

D
4520

Solution

We know
a² - b² = (a + b) (a - b)
Here, a = 56 and b = 14
So, 56² - 14²= (56 + 14)(56 - 14)
= (70) × (42) = 2940
Question 10
2.67 / -0

What will be the value of ?

A

B

C

D

Solution

Using laws of exponents,

=

=
Question 11
2.67 / -0

A wall 8 m long, 6 m high and 22.5 cm thick is made up of bricks, each measuring 25 cm × 11.25 cm × 6 cm. Find the number of bricks required.

A
6000

B
6200

C
6400

D
7200

Solution

Number of bricks required = = 6400
Question 12
2.67 / -0

Which of the following is a perfect cube?

A
216000

B
625000

C
2000

D
172800

Solution

216000 is a perfect cube because 216000 = 6 × 6 × 6 × 10 × 10 × 10, which means 216000 is a cube of 60.
Question 13
2.67 / -0

The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 4 years at 4% per annum is less than the compound interest on the same sum for 2 years at 10% per annum by Rs. 60. Find the sum.

A
Rs. 1000

B
Rs. 1200

C
Rs. 1500

D
None of these

Solution

SI = =
CI = A - P
CI = P- P
CI =

CI - SI = Rs. 60
- = Rs. 60
= Rs. 60

P = Rs. 1200
Question 14
2.67 / -0

Johnny purchased 3 novels marked at Rs. 95 each, a Chemistry book marked at Rs. 180 and an Oxford dictionary marked at Rs. 470. He received Rs. 187 as a discount on the total marked price. Find the discount percentage.

A
20%

B
19.5%

C
19%

D
18.5%

Solution

Total marked price = 95 × 3 + 180 + 470 = Rs. 935
Discount amount (given) = Rs. 187
Let the discount offered be x%.

187 =

= x

x = 20%
Question 15
2.67 / -0

If the selling price (SP) of an article is of its cost price (CP), the percentage profit in the transaction is

A
39_%

B
38%

C
33_%

D
None of these

Solution

Given: SP = CP

Profit = SP - CP = CP – CP =

Profit % =
Question 16
2.67 / -0

A batch of troopers was in a camp for 1 month and 20 days from 1^st June. There was enough food for 70 troopers, but 10 of them left after 20^th day. How long will the food last, if they consume food at the same rate?

A
50 days

B
55 days

C
65 days

D
75 days

Solution

1 month and 20 days = 50 days
Number of troopers after 20^th day = (70 - 10) = 60
70 troopers and food for 50 days.
One trooper had food for (70 × 50) days.
So, we have 70 × 50 = 70 × 20 + 60 × x
70 × 30 = 60 × x
x = 35
Total number of days food will last = 20 + 35 = 55 days
Question 17
2.67 / -0

Mohak is travelling from one part of Toronto to another, which is 30 km away. He began his journey in a metro at the speed of 50 km/h and covered half of the distance. Then, he covered the rest of the distance in a local bus at a speed of 20 km/h. How much time did he take to reach from one part of Toronto to another?

A
0.45 hours

B
0.75 hours

C
1.05 hour

D
1.20 hours

Solution

As you know, time =

Total time = Time in metro + Time in local bus
By substituting the values in the formula, we get +
or, 0.30 + 0.75 = 1.05
Mohak took 1.05 hours to finish his journey.
Question 18
2.67 / -0

What will be p² + , if p - = 10?

A
120

B
56

C
102

D
12

Solution

= p² - 2 + = (10)²
p² + = (10)² + 2 = 102
Question 19
2.67 / -0

What number should be added to to get ?

A

B

C

D

Solution

Let the number added be 'x'.
Question 20
2.67 / -0

16^2.5 : 4⁵ is the same as

A
1 : 2

B
1 : 1

C
2 : 1

D
3 : 1

Solution

16^2.5 : 4⁵We can write 16^2.5 as (16)^5/2
i.e. square root of 16⁵= 4⁵
Required ratio = 4⁵ : 4⁵

= = 1

Or, ratio is 1 : 1.
Question 21
2.67 / -0

Find 2 consecutive even numbers such that one third of the larger exceeds one-fifth of the smaller by 2.

A
14, 16

B
12, 14

C
16, 18

D
10, 12

Solution

Let the consecutive even numbers be 2x and 2x + 2.
According to question,

10x + 10 = 6x + 30
4x = 20

x =

So, the numbers are 2x = 2 × 5 = 10 and 2x + 2 = 2 × 5 + 2 = 12
Question 22
2.67 / -0

How many 2-digit numbers are possible such that the sum of their digits is equal to twice the difference between the digits?

A
2

B
3

C
6

D
11

Solution

Let xy be the number.
x + y = 2(x - y) or x + y = 2(y - x)
x = 3y or y = 3x
So, different numbers are 31, 62, 93, 13, 26 and 39.
Therefore, 6 different numbers are possible.
Question 23
2.67 / -0

If 0.48 + 1(8a + 3) = 0.96(0.5 + 9a), then a is equal to

A
-0.46875

B
4.6875

C
-0.046875

D
0.46875

Solution

0.48 + 1(8a + 3) = 0.96(0.5 + 9a)
0.48 + 8a + 3 = 0.48 + 8.64a
8a - 8.64a = - 3
-0.64a = -3
a = 4.6875
Question 24
2.67 / -0

If the width of a rectangle is equal to the side of a square, find the area of the square when the diagonal of the rectangle is cm and its length is 12 cm.

A
100 cm²

B
90 cm²

C
81 cm²

D
70 cm²

Solution

Let 'x' be the width of the rectangle.
By Pythagoras theorem in half-rectangle,
Hypotenuse² = Base² + Height²

()²= x² + 12² (where base = width of the rectangle)

225 - 144 = x²
81 = x²
x = 9 cm
9 cm is the width of the rectangle.
The area of the square is (side)².
Area = 9² = 81 cm²
Question 25
2.67 / -0

A person has a rope and he wants to make a square from that rope. The square that he makes using the rope has an area of 225 m². Find the length of the rope.

A
40 cm

B
25 cm

C
20 cm

D
60 cm

Solution

Area = side²
225 = side²
Side = (225)^1/2
= 15 m
Length of rope = Perimeter of square
Perimeter = 4 × Side
= 4 × 15
= 60 cm
Question 26
2.67 / -0

The perpendicular distance between the parallel sides of a trapezium is 15 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 495 cm², then find the length of the larger of parallel sides, if they are in ratio of 6 : 5.

A
18 cm

B
24 cm

C
48 cm

D
36 cm

Solution

Let us say length of parallel sides is 5x and 6x.
So, sum of length of parallel sides = 5x + 6x = 11x cm
Perpendicular distance between two sides = 15 cm
Area (A) = 495 cm²
Area of trapezium = (1/2) × (Sum of lengths of parallel sides) × (Perpendicular distance between parallel sides)
So, 495 = (1/2) × (11x) × 15
165x = 990
x = 6
So, parallel sides = 5x = 5 × 6 = 30 cm
6x = 6 × 6 = 36 cm
Larger side = 36 cm
Question 27
2.67 / -0

Directions: Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.

The marks of 12 students in a class test are as follows.

61, 56, 49, 72, 75, 69, 56, 53, 68, 55, 58, 61

Find the median, if one of the students scored 96 marks, but the teacher entered it wrongly as 69.

A
59.5

B
58.5

C
57.5

D
60.5

Solution

The median is the middle of a sorted list of numbers.

If we have 'n' terms, median when number of observations is

● Even: Average of term and term

● Odd: term

The correct set of marks is
61, 56, 49, 72, 75, 96, 56, 53, 68, 55, 58, 61 (12 observations)
If we arrange the marks in ascending order, we get
49, 53, 55, 56, 56, 58, 61, 61, 68, 72, 75, 96
The median will be the average of the 6^th and 7^th terms i.e. 58 and 61 = 59.5
Question 28
2.67 / -0

Which of the following least numbers must be added to 621 to make it a perfect square?

A
1

B
4

C
5

D
3

Solution

Perfect square closer to 621 = 625
Given number = 621
Therefore, least number must be added = 625 – 621 = 4
Question 29
2.67 / -0

A person is filling fuel in the car. The tank of the car is in the form of a cylinder. If height of tank is 80 cm and diameter is 84 cm, then calculate the fuel that a person can fill in that car.

A
44.12 litres

B
443.52 litres

C
4435.20 litres

D
444.52 litres

Solution

To find the capacity of the cylindrical tank, we would find its volume.
Volume of the cylinder = πr²h (where r = Radius of cylinder and h = Height of cylinder)
Given diameter = 84, radius (r) = (84/2) = 42 cm
Volume = (22/7) × 42²× 80 = 4,43,520 cm³= 0.443520 m³
Now, 1 m³ = 1000 L
Thus, 0.443520 m³ = 0.443520 × 1000 = 443.52 litres
Question 30
2.67 / -0

By what least number should 13718 be divided to get a perfect cube?

A
3

B
19

C
5

D
2

Solution

Given number is 13718.
13718 = 2 × 19 × 19 × 19
Least number that should be divided from 13718 to get a perfect cube = 2
Question 31
2.67 / -0

Find the value of 'x'.

= 6x – 66

A
8

B
10

C
12

D
14

Solution

= 6x – 66

= 6x – 66

3x = 36x – 396

396 = 36x – 3x

396 = 33x

x =

x = 12
Question 32
2.67 / -0

A sold a watch to B at a gain of 5% and B sold it to C at a gain of 4%. If C paid Rs. 1,092 for it, the price paid by A is

A
Rs. 993.72

B
Rs. 996

C
Rs. 1,000

D
Rs. 995.90

Solution

Given: C paid Rs. 1,092.
Let the sum paid by A be Rs. X.
Then, amount paid by B to A = Rs. 1.05X
Amount paid by C to B = 1.04 × 1.05X = Rs. 1,092
X = Rs. 1,000

Short Cut method:
From options:
Suppose A paid Rs. 1,000.
Then, B paid to A = 1,000 × + 1,000 = Rs. 1,050
Moreover, C paid to B = 1,050 + = Rs. 1,092
It satisfies the given condition.
Question 33
2.67 / -0

Adolf can do a task in 15 days, but Beggie can do the same task in 25 days. Both started working together, but after 6 days, Adolf left. In how many days will Beggie complete the remaining task?

A
27

B
9

C
17

D
25

Solution

Adolf does of work in a day.

Beggie does of work in a day.^{When they work together, total work will be done in a day}=^{So, in 6 days, total work will be done by them =}Let the amount of work done left be 'x'.^{+ x = 1

x = 1 -

x = =

x =
So, the remaining task will be completed by Beggie in days.}
Question 34
2.67 / -0

There are 96 square tiles which make up the floor of the hall in a wedding palace. If the perimeter of each tile is 8 m, what is the area of the floor of the hall?

A
356 m²

B
372 m²

C
384 m²

D
392 m²

Solution

Perimeter of each square tile = side × number of sides
8 = side × 4
8 ÷ 4 = side
side = 2 m
Area of each tile = side²
= 2²
= 4 m²
Area of 96 tiles on the floor = 4 × 96
= 384 m²
Question 35
2.67 / -0

Find the number of small cubes of 100 cm edge that can be cut out from a cube of 5 m edge.

A
150

B
100

C
225

D
125

Solution

Side of bigger cube = 5 m
Side of smaller cube = 100 cm = 1 m
Then, number of small cubes = Volume of big cube/Volume of small cube = (5 × 5 × 5)/(1 × 1 × 1) = 125 cubes
Question 36
2.67 / -0

Rohan has a cylindrical flask whose height is 26 cm. If the total amount of liquid that it can store is 4004 cm³, then find the diameter of flask.

A
12 cm

B
14 cm

C
18 cm

D
20 cm

Solution

Diameter (d) = 'd' cm
Radius (r) = '(d/2)' cm
Height = 26 cm
Volume of the cylindrical flask = 4004 cm³
Volume of the cylinder = πr²h (where 'h' is the height)
∴ πr²h = 4004

× r² × 26 = 4004

r² =
r² = 49
r = 7 cm
d = 2r = 2(7)
d = 14 cm
Question 37
2.67 / -0

Which of the following numbers is the same as ?

A
450

B
456

C
464

D
472

Solution

=×
= 38 × 12 = 456
Question 38
2.67 / -0

Ella is trying to find the volume of a cuboid whose edges are in ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. Find the volume of the cuboid, if the surface area is 1300 cm².

A
1000 cm³

B
2000 cm³

C
3000 cm³

D
6000 cm³

Solution

Ratio of edges of cuboid = 2 : 3 : 4
Let l = 4x, b = 3x and h = 2x
Surface area = 1300 cm²
2(lb + bh + hl) = 1300
2(12x² + 6x² + 8x²) = 1300
(12x² + 6x² + 8x²) = 650
26x² = 650
x² = 25
x = 5
∴ l = 20 cm, b = 15 cm and h = 10 cm
∴ Volume = lbh
= 20 × 15 × 10 = 3000 cm³
Question 39
2.67 / -0

A cyclist started with a speed of 30 km/hr in a race. After every lap of one hour each, he increased his speed by 5 km/h. In how many laps will he cover 450 km?

A
8

B
9

C
10

D
11

Solution

According to question, a cyclist started with a speed of 30 km/hr in a race and after every lap, he increased his speed by 5 km/h.
So, 30 + 35 + 40 + 45 + 50 + 55 + 60 + 65 + 70 = 450 km
It means there are 9 laps in which he will cover 450 km.
Question 40
2.67 / -0

The average of 21 results is 54. If the average of the first 11 results is 51 and that of the last 11 is 57, find the 11^th result.

A
48

B
50

C
54

D
56

Solution

Average of 21 results = 54
Total of 21 results = 54 × 21 = 1134
Average of the first 11 results = 51
Total of the first 11 results = 51 × 11 = 561
Average of the last 11 results = 57
Total of the last 11 results = 57 × 11 = 627
Therefore, 11^th result = 561 + 627 - 1134 = 1188 - 1134 = 54
Question 41
2.67 / -0

Which of the following numbers is the same as ?

A
2

B
5

C
8

D
10

Solution

=
= 5
Question 42
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What will be the value of (z + 2)(z² + 2)(z - 4)?

A
z⁴ - 2z³ - 10z² - 4z - 16

B
z⁴ - 2z³ - 6z² - 4z - 18

C
z⁴ - 2z³ - 6z² - 4z - 16

D
z² + 1

Solution

(z + 2)(z²+ 2)(z - 4)
= (z(z²+ 2) + 2(z² + 2))(z - 4)
= (z³ + 2z² + 2z + 4) (z - 4)
= z(z³ + 2z² + 2z + 4) - 4(z³ + 2z² + 2z + 4)
= z⁴ + 2z³ + 2z² + 4z - 4z³ - 8z² - 8z - 16
= z⁴ - 2z³ - 6z² - 4z - 16
Question 43
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A square pyramid consists of

A
triangular faces and a square base

B
triangular faces and 2 bases

C
square faces and a single base

D
square faces and 2 bases

Solution

A squarer pyramid has triangular faces and a square base.
Question 44
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What is the value of 9x - 52 + x²?

A
(x - 4)(x + 13)

B
(4 + x)(13 + x)

C
(4 + x)(13 - x)

D
(4 - x)(13 - x)

Solution

9x - 52 + x²
= x²+ 13x - 4x - 52
= x(x + 13) - 4(x + 13)
= (x - 4)(x + 13)
Question 45
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If (x + y + z) = 5 and xy + yz + xz = 8, then what is the value of x²+ y²+ z²?

A
6

B
7

C
8

D
9

Solution

As we know,
(x + y + z)² = x²+ y²+ z²+ 2(xy + yz + xz)
(5)²= x²+ y²+ z²+ 2(8)
x²+ y²+ z²= 25 - 16 = 9
Question 46
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the graph and answer the following question.

This graph represents the daily schedule of a military personnel.

...view full instructions

For how long was he having a rest and from what time to what time?

A
1.30 hr, from 19:00 to 21:00

B
2 hr, from 19:00 to 21:00

C
2.30 hr, from 19:00 to 21:30

D
2 hr, from 20:00 to 22:00

Solution

From the graph, it is clear that the military personnel was having a rest of two hours from 19:00 to 21:00.
Question 47
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the graph and answer the following question.

This graph represents the daily schedule of a military personnel.

...view full instructions

How much is the total distance covered?

A
8 km

B
9 km

C
10 km

D
14 km

Solution

From 14:00 - 16:00 = 4 km
16:00 - 18:00 = 1 km
18:00 - 20:00 = 2 km
20:00 - 22:00 = 1 km
22:00 - 00:00 = 1 km
00:00 - 02:00 = 0 km
Total distance covered = 4 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 0 = 9 km
Question 48
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the graph and answer the following question.

This graph represents the daily schedule of a military personnel.

...view full instructions

Find the average distance covered per hour.

A
1.11 km/hr

B
0.9 km/hr

C
0.5 km/hr

D
0.85 km/hr

Solution

From looking at the graph, its clear that total distance covered = 9 km
Total time taken = 10 hours

Average =

= = 0.9 km/hr
Question 49
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the graph and answer the following question.

This graph represents the daily schedule of a military personnel.

...view full instructions

What is the scale taken on the distance axis?

A
1.56 km

B
1 km

C
1 m

D
1.25 km

Solution

From looking at the graph, its clear that
1 unit on distance axis = 1 km
Question 50
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Directions For Questions

Directions: Refer to the graph and answer the following question.

This graph represents the daily schedule of a military personnel.

...view full instructions

Maximum distance was covered during

A
14:00 to 16:00

B
16:00 to 18:00

C
18:00 to 20:00

D
20:00 to 22:00

Solution

From looking at the graph, its clear that the time period in which the maximum distance was covered is 14:00 to 16:00.
Question 51
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Directions: Select the option that best punctuates the given sentence.

A
Sudha writes, neatly, legibly, and correctly.

B
Sudha writes neatly, legibly and correctly.

C
Sudha writes, neatly, legibly and correctly.

D
Sudha writes neatly, legibly, and correctly.

Solution

Comma is used to separate two or more words of the same Part of Speech.
Question 52
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Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in direct/indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in indirect/direct speech.

My mother says, "I have often told you not to play with fire."

A
My mother has often told me not to play with fire.

B
My mother said that I should not play with fire.

C
My mother says that she has often told me not to play with fire.

D
My mother says that she often tells me not to play with fire.

Solution

The reporting verb is in present tense. Hence, the tense of the speech within the quotation marks will not change. The conjunction 'that' is used before the spoken words. The tense in the given sentence is present perfect and it will remain the same. Thus, option (3) is the correct answer.
Question 53
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Directions: In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

He could have solved the problem.

A
The problem could be solved by him.

B
The problem could have solved by him.

C
The problem could have been solved by him.

D
The problem could solve by him.

Solution

We use 'could have + past participle' when we want to make a guess about something that happened in the past. In passive voice, the construction of the sentence will be 'could have + been + past participle form of verb'. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
Question 54
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Directions: In the following question, out of four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Incensed

A
Ecstatic

B
Exasperated

C
Elated

D
Blithe

Solution

'Exasperated' means 'annoyed or incensed'. All other words mean opposite to 'incensed'.
Question 55
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Directions: In the following question, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Dodge

A
Avoid

B
Soften

C
Order

D
Chaotic

Solution

Dodge means to avoid someone or something by a sudden quick movement. Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 56
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Directions: In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Perky

A
Cheerful

B
Depressed

C
Gloomy

D
Quiet

Solution

The word 'perky' means 'cheerful and lively.'
'Cheerful' also means 'noticeably happy and optimistic.'
So, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 57
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Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given Idiom/Phrase.

Bite the dust

A
Eat poorly

B
Suffer a defeat

C
Clean something

D
Attack and defeat somebody

Solution

It means 'to suffer defeat or death'.
Question 58
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Directions: In the following question, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

Elegance

A
Vehemence

B
Fragrance

C
Graceless

D
Ostentatious

Solution

'Elegance' is the quality of being graceful. The opposite is 'graceless'.
Question 59
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The plural of 'virus' is:

A
Viruses

B
Virae

C
Virii

D
Virus

Solution

The plural of 'virus' is 'viruses'.
Question 60
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Directions: Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (D). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)

All the good dancers (A) has participated in (B) the cheer leading squad. (C) No error (D)

A
(A)

B
(B)

C
(C)

D
(D)

Solution

'Has' will be replaced with 'have' as the subject (all) is plural.
Question 61
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Directions: Choose the correct order to make the sentence below meaningful.

wanted could and (1)/ and cross the seas (2)/ to cross these frontiers (3)/ did scale the mountains (4)/ while it was difficult (5)/ those who (6)

A
321564

B
536142

C
246153

D
456123

Solution

The correct sentence will be:
While it was difficult to cross these frontiers, those who wanted could and did scale the mountains and cross the seas.
Question 62
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Directions: Choose the correct idiom or phrase to complete the sentence.

Having walked four miles, I felt tired and wanted to _________.

A
hit the dark

B
hit the sack

C
hit the bed

D
hit the chair

Solution

The correct phrase is 'hit the sack', which means 'go to bed'. The clue is provided by 'I felt tired'.
So, the correct answer is 'hit the sack'.
Question 63
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Directions: Fill in the blank with the suitable conjunction.

She had been invited to the party, _______ she stayed home.

A
and

B
but

C
as

D
or

Solution

The sentence implies that she had been invited, and in spite of this she stayed at home. Option 2 best presents the contrast.
Question 64
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Complete the following maxim.

A journey of a thousand miles begins with a single ______.

A
step

B
walk

C
roll

D
sway

Solution

The correct maxim is 'A journey of a thousand miles begins with a single step'. This saying means that even the longest and most difficult ventures have a starting point; even these begin with one first step.
Question 65
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The right suffix for the word 'honest' to make it an abstract noun is:

A
-ly

B
-y

C
-ing

D
-ed

Solution

'Honesty' refers to the quality of being honest.
Question 66
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Directions: Find the prefix for the following word:

Heat

A
In

B
Un

C
Em

D
Pre

Solution

'Preheat' means 'to heat (something, especially an oven or grill) beforehand'.
Question 67
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Directions: The item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

The culprit was sentenced by the Court.

A
acquitted

B
punished

C
relieved

D
pardoned

Solution

The word 'sentenced' means 'declared the punishment decided for (an offender)', while 'acquitted' means 'declared not guilty of a specific offence or crime; legally blameless'.
So, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 68
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Directions: The item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

His short but pointed speech was applauded by all sections of the audience.

A
disapproved

B
misunderstood

C
praised

D
welcomed

Solution

'Applauded' refers to 'expressing approval of' something, while 'disapprove' means 'deem wrong or inappropriate.' So, option 1 is the correct answer.
Question 69
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Directions: The item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

House rent in cities like Mumbai or Delhi has risen to astronomical figures beyond the reach of even high-salaried people.

A
Exorbitant

B
Commercial

C
Planetary

D
Illogical

Solution

'Astronomical' means 'exceedingly great; enormous, i.e. exorbitant'.
Question 70
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Directions: The item consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Appropriate technology holds the key to a nation's development.

A
Modern

B
Suitable

C
Effective

D
Growing

Solution

'Appropriate' means 'suitable or fitting'.
Question 71
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The adjective form of 'ambition' is:

A
Ambitious

B
Ambience

C
Ambitly

D
Ambit

Solution

'Ambitious' refers to someone having a strong desire for success or achievement.
Question 72
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Directions For Questions

Directions: In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you have a question based on the passage. First, read the passage, and then answer the question based on it. You are required to select your answer based on the content of the passage and opinion of the author only.

We should preserve Nature to preserve life and beauty. A beautiful landscape, full of green vegetation, will not just attract our attention but will fill us with infinite satisfaction. Unfortunately, because of modernisation, much of Nature is now yielding to towns, roads and industrial areas. In a few places some Natural reserves are now being carved out to avert the danger of destroying Nature completely. Man will perish without Nature, so modern man should continue this struggle to save plants, which give us oxygen, from extinction. Moreover, Nature is essential to man's health.

...view full instructions

What does 'Nature' in the passage mean?

A
Countryside covered with plants and trees

B
Physical power that created the world

C
Inherent things that determine character

D
Practical study of plants and animals

Solution

It is given in the passage, "Unfortunately, because of modernisation, much of Nature is now yielding to towns, roads and industrial areas." This indicates that 'Nature' refers to the trees and plants in the countryside.
Question 73
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Directions For Questions

Directions: In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you have a question based on the passage. First, read the passage, and then answer the question based on it. You are required to select your answer based on the content of the passage and opinion of the author only.

We should preserve Nature to preserve life and beauty. A beautiful landscape, full of green vegetation, will not just attract our attention but will fill us with infinite satisfaction. Unfortunately, because of modernisation, much of Nature is now yielding to towns, roads and industrial areas. In a few places some Natural reserves are now being carved out to avert the danger of destroying Nature completely. Man will perish without Nature, so modern man should continue this struggle to save plants, which give us oxygen, from extinction. Moreover, Nature is essential to man's health.

...view full instructions

According to the passage, which one of the following is the correct statement?

A
Beauty is only skin-deep.

B
Everything is beautiful in its natural state.

C
There is beauty in Nature.

D
Nature is a moral teacher.

Solution

The answer is in the line, "We should preserve Nature to preserve life and beauty."
Question 74
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Directions For Questions

Directions: In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you have a question based on the passage. First, read the passage, and then answer the question based on it. You are required to select your answer based on the content of the passage and opinion of the author only.

We should preserve Nature to preserve life and beauty. A beautiful landscape, full of green vegetation, will not just attract our attention but will fill us with infinite satisfaction. Unfortunately, because of modernisation, much of Nature is now yielding to towns, roads and industrial areas. In a few places some Natural reserves are now being carved out to avert the danger of destroying Nature completely. Man will perish without Nature, so modern man should continue this struggle to save plants, which give us oxygen, from extinction. Moreover, Nature is essential to man's health.

...view full instructions

What does 'struggle' in the passage mean?

A
Man's struggle to exist in the world

B
Man's struggle to save Nature

C
Man's struggle to catch up with modern trends

D
Man's struggle to conserve oxygen

Solution

The answer is in the line, "... so modern man should continue this struggle to save plants, ...". The struggle refers to the struggle to save plants or Nature. Struggle is not for conserving oxygen, but for saving plants which give oxygen.
Question 75
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Directions For Questions

Directions: In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you have a question based on the passage. First, read the passage, and then answer the question based on it. You are required to select your answer based on the content of the passage and opinion of the author only.

We should preserve Nature to preserve life and beauty. A beautiful landscape, full of green vegetation, will not just attract our attention but will fill us with infinite satisfaction. Unfortunately, because of modernisation, much of Nature is now yielding to towns, roads and industrial areas. In a few places some Natural reserves are now being carved out to avert the danger of destroying Nature completely. Man will perish without Nature, so modern man should continue this struggle to save plants, which give us oxygen, from extinction. Moreover, Nature is essential to man's health.

...view full instructions

Why will a beautiful landscape 'fill us with infinite satisfaction'?

A
It will strengthen our love for beauty.

B
It will be full of green vegetation.

C
It will ensure our future existence.

D
It will show our command over Nature.

Solution

Option 3 is correct as the passage shows a connection between Nature and our future existence.
Options 1, 2 and 4 don't find reference to the text in the passage.
Question 76
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The ______ galaxy which was formed 5 billion years after the explosion is the home of the Earth and the Solar System.

A
Bode's

B
Milky Way

C
Andromeda

D
Integral Sign

Solution

The Milky Way is the galaxy that contains our Solar System. The name describes the galaxy's appearance from Earth: a hazy band of light seen in the night sky formed from stars that cannot be individually distinguished by the naked eye.
Question 77
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______ rotates faster than any other planet, completing one rotation in less than 10 hours.

A
Saturn

B
Jupiter

C
Uranus

D
Neptune

Solution

Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and the largest in the Solar System. It is the fastest spinning planet in our Solar System rotating on average once in just under 10 hours.
Question 78
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__________, an important component, is present in the top layer of the soil that determines the soil fertility.

A
Water

B
Rock

C
Humus

D
Air

Solution

Humus, formed by decomposition of the organic matter by the microbes, is present in a good amount in the top soil, which makes the soil fertile and provides nutrients for the growing plants.
Question 79
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In ancient times, air was considered to be an element. A number of scientist tried to find out the exact composition and nature of air. In 1774, Lavoisier, a French chemist, showed that air is a mixture and the main gases in it are nitrogen and oxygen.

Air is a mixture. It has certain properties. Pick out the correct property/properties of air.

A
Air occupies space.

B
Air has mass (or weight).

C
Air exerts pressure equally in all directions.

D
All of these

Solution

As the air enters the balloon, the air (which is a gas) takes up space in the balloon. The balloon expands because the air inside needs to take up more space. This proves that air occupies space.
The compressed air in the balloon has a greater weight than the surrounding air. While the weight itself cannot be measured in this way, the experiment gives an indirect evidence that air has mass.
Air pressure or atmospheric pressure is the weight of air acting on a unit area of surface. Air exerts pressure in all directions.
Question 80
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What is the role of a catalyst in a reaction?

A
It increases the yield of product.

B
It increases the rate of reaction.

C
It improves the purity of products.

D
It reduces the wastage of reactants and products.

Solution

A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of reaction, but itself remains unchanged.
Question 81
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Which of the following substances falls under the category of mixtures?

A
Milk

B
Ice

C
Iron

D
Calcium oxide

Solution

Milk is a mixture of water, fat (also called butterfat or milkfat), and milk solids. Milk solids are made of proteins and carbohydrates.
Question 82
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From which of the following sources, do we get the purest form of water?

A
Water obtained from sea

B
Water prepared in laboratory (distilled water)

C
Water coming in our taps

D
Water present in packed bottles like Bisleri

Solution

Distilled water is the water that has been boiled into vapour and condensed back into liquid in a separate container. Impurities in the original water that do not boil below or at the boiling point of water remain in the original container. Thus, distilled water is a type of purified water.
Question 83
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The mass of an atom is equal to the _______.

A
sum of masses of protons and neutrons

B
mass of electrons

C
mass of protons

D
sum of masses of protons and electrons

Solution

The mass number (A), also called atomic mass number or nucleon number, is the total number of protons and neutrons (together known as nucleons) in an atomic nucleus. It determines the atomic mass of atoms.
NOTE: The mass of an electron being negligible ( mass of the proton) is not taken into consideration.
Hence, the atomic mass is equal to the nuclear mass.
Question 84
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Isotopes have the same _________ but different _________.

(i) atomic number, mass numbers
(ii) mass number, atomic numbers
(iii) physical properties, chemical properties
(iv) chemical properties, physical properties

A
(i) and (iv)

B
only (i)

C
(i) and (iii)

D
(ii) and (iv)

Solution

Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, and consequently in nucleon number. All isotopes of a given element have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons in each atom.
So, Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same atomic number, but different mass numbers and they have the same chemical properties, but differ in their physical properties.
Question 85
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Which of the following metals is the best conductor of heat?

A
Iron

B
Silver

C
Copper

D
Lead

Solution

All metals are good conductors of heat and electricity. They are good conductors of electricity because they contain free or mobile electrons, which help to conduct electric current. They are good conductors of heat because they have a very tightly packed structure, i.e. the neighbouring atoms are closely packed. So, the vibrations due to heat are easily transmitted from one atom to the next, and so on. Among metals, silver is the best conductor of heat, followed by copper, gold, aluminium, etc.
Question 86
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Which of the following is not a functional group?

A
–CH

B
–OH

C
–Cl

D

Solution

The names of the six most important functional groups are as follows: Hydroxyl (-OH), Carbonyl (-C=O), Carboxyl (both the hydroxyl and carbonyl groups form the functional group carboxyl), Amino (-NH₂), Sulfhydryl (-SH), Phosphate (R-OPO₃^2-).
Question 87
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Which of the following is a property of a prokaryotic cell?

A
Size of a cell is generally large.

B
True nucleus is absent.

C
It contains more than one chromosome.

D
Nucleolus is present in a prokaryotic cell.

Solution

Prokaryotes have their genomic DNA concentrated and localized to a small area within the cell (nucleoid region). Hence, they lack a 'true' nucleus that is membrane bound.
Question 88
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Which of the following is TRUE with respect to bacteria?

A
They can be unicellular or multicellular.

B
They are larger than viruses.

C
They have two major forms.

D
They feed on dead leaves.

Solution

Bacteria are prokaryotes, which consist of a single cell with a simple internal structure.
There are three basic bacterial shapes: cocci; cylindrical, capsule-shaped bacteria as bacilli; and spiral bacteria (aptly called spirilla).
Bacteria are over 100 times larger than viruses, but both can still only be seen by using a microscope.
Question 89
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Why do stars twinkle?

A
Due to reflection

B
Due to fluctuation

C
Due to infection

D
Due to refraction

Solution

Stars twinkle because of turbulence in the atmosphere of the Earth. As the atmosphere churns, the light from the star is refracted in different directions. This causes the star's image to change slightly in brightness and position, hence twinkle.
Question 90
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Which of the following is the correct unit of optical power?

A
Metre

B
Hertz

C
Candela

D
Dioptre

Solution

A dioptre is a unit of measurement of the optical power of a lens or curved mirror, which is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length measured in metres.
Question 91
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Which of the following devices converts electric energy into mechanical energy?

A
Vacuum cleaner

B
Electric bell

C
Loudspeaker

D
Electric bulb

Solution

This is the correct option. Vacuum cleaner converts electric energy into mechanical energy. Electrical Energy is added to the vacuum cleaner as input. This energy is converted to mechanical energy with heat energy and sound energy being wasted.
Question 92
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Materials that allow electric current to flow through them are conductors. Which of the following statements about conductors is false?

A
All metals are conductors of electricity.

B
All solutions of acids in water are conductors of electricity.

C
All non-metals are bad conductors of electricity.

D
None of these

Solution

This is the correct option as this statement is false. Non-metals like graphite and gas-carbon are good conductors of electricity.
Question 93
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Why are lubricants applied to rubbing surfaces of machines?

A
Lubricants increase friction.

B
Lubricants reduce the efficiency of the vehicle.

C
Lubricants provide a polished look.

D
Lubricants help in reducing friction and increasing efficiency.

Solution

Lubricants help in reducing friction and increasing efficiency and thus, machines run more smoothly and last longer.
Question 94
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Which of the following should be applied on the carom board to reduce friction?

A
A dry lubricant

B
A layer of grease

C
A ball bearing

D
A lubricating oil

Solution

Dry lubricants or solid lubricants are materials that, despite being in the solid phase, are able to reduce friction between two surfaces sliding against each other without the need for a liquid oil medium. It is applied on the carom board to reduce friction.
Question 95
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Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can be transformed from one form to another form. This law is called

A
Dalton's law

B
Newton's law

C
Darwin's theory

D
Law of conservation of energy

Solution

In physics, the law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed; rather, it transforms from one form to another.
Question 96
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_______ is a natural gas produced from waste products.

A
Biogas

B
Hydrogen gas

C
Gasohol

D
Nitrogen gas

Solution

Biogas typically refers to a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen. It can be produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste or food waste.
Question 97
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_____ bodies absorb more heat and light than white bodies.

A
Black

B
Red

C
Violet

D
Grey

Solution

A black body is an idealized physical body that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiations, regardless of frequency or angle of incidence.
Question 98
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Which of the following diseases cannot be cured with antibiotics?

A
Influenza

B
Cholera

C
Malaria

D
Typhoid

Solution

This is the correct option. Influenza is a viral disease and cannot be cured with antibiotics.
Influenza is primarily treated with rest and fluid intake to allow the body to fight the infection on its own.
Question 99
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Which of the following is a protein-deficiency disease?

A
Xeropthalmia

B
Night blindness

C
Beriberi

D
Kwashiorkor

Solution

Kwashiorkor, also known as edematous malnutrition because of its association with edema (fluid retention), is a nutritional disorder most often seen in regions experiencing famine. It is a form of malnutrition caused by a lack of protein in the diet.

Question 100

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Match the following:

1. White revolution	a. Poultry farming
2. Blue revolution	b. Beekeeping
3. Golden revolution	c. Fisheries
4. Silver revolution	d. Milk production

1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a

1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b

1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c

1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a

Solution

White revolution is related to the production of milk. Blue revolution is related to fisheries. Golden revolution is related to beekeeping. Silver revolution is related to poultry farming.

Question 101
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What was the term used for the revenue collecting department of the state?

A
Chavni

B
Diwan-e-khas

C
Diwani

D
Kachehri

Solution

Diwani was the revenue collecting department under Mughals. Diwani rights, the power to collect revenue and administer Civil cases in Bengal, were granted to the East India Company in 1765 by Shah Alam II, the Mughal emperor of Delhi, in return for the districts of Kora and Allahabad as a tribute. This was a defining moment in that the Company was now involved for the first time in the direct administration of a province in India.
Question 102
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Which man is the pioneer in spreading modern education and social reforms among Muslims?

A
Shivaji

B
Mohammad Ali Jinnah

C
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

D
Tatya Tope

Solution

Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was the pioneer in spreading modern education and social reforms among Muslims.
He was an Indian Muslim pragmatist, Islamic reformist, philosopher of nineteenth-century British India. He worked to promote reinterpretation of Muslim ideology in order to reconcile tradition with Western education. He established the MAO College which eventually became the Aligarh Muslim University.
Question 103
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By the 18^th century, which of the following commodities were produced on large plantations in America by slave labour and exported to other countries?

A
Grains such as wheat and barley

B
Tropical fruits such as bananas and oranges

C
Animal products such as wool and beef

D
Cash crops such as sugar and cotton

Solution

Plantations were an important aspect in the history of the southern United States, particularly the antebellum (pre-American Civil War) era. The mild subtropical climate, plentiful rainfall, and fertile soils of the southeastern United States allowed the flourishing of large plantations, where large numbers of workers, usually Africans held captive for slave labor, were required for agricultural production. Tobacco was the major cash crop in the Upper South (in the original Chesapeake Bay Colonies of Virginia and Maryland, and in parts of the Carolinas). The later development of cotton and sugar cultivation in the Deep South in the early 18^th century led to the establishment of large plantations which had hundreds of slaves.
Question 104
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The person who established British rule in India

A
Robert Clive

B
Duplex

C
Mir Jafar

D
Sir Eyre Coote

Solution

The person who established British rule in India was 'Robert Clive'. He was Commander-in-Chief of British India and privateer who established the military and political supremacy of the East India Company in Bengal.
Question 105
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India came directly under the rule of the British crown under the year ______.

A
1857

B
1858

C
1859

D
1856

Solution

The British Raj was the rule by the British Crown in the Indian subcontinent between 1858 and 1947. After the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the rule of the British East India Company was transferred to the Crown in the person of Queen Victoria.
Question 106
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The Kuka movement to overthrow the British rule was organised in

A
Uttar Pradesh

B
Bihar

C
Punjab

D
Tamil Nadu

Solution

Kuka Movement was founded in 1840 by Bhagat Jawahar Mal (also called Sian Saheb) in western Punjab.
Question 107
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Who among the following used cloth as a symbolic weapon against the British rule?

A
Motilal Nehru

B
Jnanadanandini Devi

C
Rabindranath Tagore

D
Mahatma Gandhi

Solution

Mahatma Gandhi used cloth as a symbolic weapon against the British rule. His weapons of Satyagraha were khadi and charkha. He believed in the development of cottage industries which would help indigenous industries and cut the foreign import.
Question 108
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The British industrial policy in India has been rightly called the policy of

A
stagnated growth

B
de-industrialisation

C
colonisation of economy

D
monopolised europeanisation

Solution

During the British rule, de-industrialisation occurred in India. The term 'de-industrialisation' came into prominence in India to describe the 'process of destruction of Indian handicraft industries by competition from the products of British manufacture during the nineteenth century'. Hence, the British industrial policy in India has been rightly called the policy of de-industrialisation.
Question 109
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The first victim of the British policy of Subsidiary Alliance was

A
Avadh

B
Mewar

C
Mysore

D
Hyderabad

Solution

A subsidiary alliance is an alliance between a dominant nation and a nation that it dominates. The 1^st victim of the policy of subsidiary alliance of Lord Wellesley was the Nizam of Hyderabad.
Question 110
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In Modern Age, women too encouraged writings for awakening and social reforms. They wrote several books. 'Aamar Jiban' published in 1876 A.D. was written by

A
Rashsundari Devi

B
Kailash Bashini Devi

C
Roqualyya Sakhawat

D
Pt. Ramabal

Solution

This is the correct answer. Rashsundari Devi was the first Indian woman to write an autobiography and first Bengali to write an autobiography. 'Aamar Jiban' (My life), her autobiography, was published in 1876.
Question 111
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Alluri Sitarama Raju's rebellion (1922 - 1924) took place in

A
Chota Nagpur

B
Gudem-Rampa Tract

C
Bastar

D
Nellore

Solution

Alluri Sitarama Raju's rebellion took place in Gudem-Rampa tract. After the passing of 1882 Madras Forest Act, its restrictions on the free movement of tribal peoples in the forest prevented them from engaging in their traditional podu agricultural system, which involved shifting cultivation. Raju led the Rampa Rebellion of 1922 - 24, during which a band of tribal leaders and other sympathisers fought against the British Raj, which had passed the law.
Question 112
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In February 1933 Gandhiji started the publication of a weekly paper, Harijan, to promote the anti - untouchability campaign. Its first issue was out on February 11, 1933 from

A
Madras

B
Poona

C
Ahmedabad

D
Kolkata

Solution

Gandhi ji started publishing a weekly journal called "Harijan" on 11 February 1933 from Yerwada Jail (Poona) during British rule.
Question 113
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Goa, immediately after Independence of India, became

A
Independent state

B
Union territory

C
A composite union territory with Daman and Diu

D
None of these

Solution

Goa remained in Portuguese hands till 1961. After failure of diplomacy with the Portuguese, Government of India ordered the Indian Armed Forces to take Goa by force. In a military operation conducted on 18 and 19 December 1961, Indian troops captured Goa with little resistance. The governor-general of Portuguese India signed an instrument of surrender.
In 1963, the Parliament of India passed the 12th Amendment Act to the Constitution of India, formally integrating the captured territories into the Indian Union. Goa, Daman and Diu became a Union Territory.
Question 114
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When did the British East India Company's rule come to an end in India?

A
1950

B
1847

C
1858

D
1947

Solution

The Company's rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857, it was abolished. With the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj.
Question 115
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Indian Constitution was formulated by

A
Drafting Committee

B
Constitutional Assembly

C
Simon Commission

D
Lok Sabha

Solution

The Drafting Committee was one of the eight major committees appointed by the Constituent Assembly (Proposed by M.N. Roy) and headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. Indian constitution was formulated by the drafting committee.
Question 116
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The Indian Constitution is a Republican Constitution because it has

A
an elected President

B
a federal form of government

C
a parliamentary supremacy

D
an elected Prime Minister

Solution

Republic is a form of government or country in which power resides in elected individuals representing the citizen body and government leaders exercise power according to the rule of law. It provides for an elected Parliament. A Republic country follows the simple rule that the supreme head of the nation is elected, not selected. Not even by heredity one can be the President in India. Republic in the Indian Constitution means that the Head of the State, Hon'Ble President is elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
Question 117
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Meaning of secularism is

A
Restraining someone to a particular religion

B
Giving equal opportunity to all religions

C
Preventing state to interfere in religious matter

D
Every person is free to profess, practice and propose any religion

Solution

Secularism in India means equal treatment of all religions by the state. With the 42^nd amendment of the Constitution of India enacted in 1976, the preamble to the Constitution asserted that India is a secular nation.
Question 118
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Which of these organs of the United Nations is also the parliament of the United Nations?

A
The General Assembly

B
The Security Council

C
The Economic and Social Council

D
The Trusteeship Council

Solution

The United Nations General Assembly is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations, the only one in which all member nations have equal representation, and the main deliberative, policy-making, and representative organ of the UN. Hence it is also the parliament of the United Nations.
Question 119
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The Foreign Trade Policy is framed by

A
RBI

B
EXIM Bank

C
DGFT

D
Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Solution

Foreign trade in India includes all imports and exports to and from India. At the level of Central Government it is administered by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It was introduced by the Government to grow the Indian export of goods and services, generating employment and increasing value addition in the country. The Government, through the implementation of the policy, seeks to develop manufacturing and service sectors.
Question 120
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In a cyclone hit area, as a preventive measure,

A
people should be displaced to far places

B
multipurpose cyclone centres should be constructed

C
houses should be multistorey

D
houses should be made of bamboo

Solution

Multipurpose cyclone centres provide shelter during disaster, have sophisticated equipment required for disaster management, provide training in search and rescue, first aid techniques and how to use all types of equipment, etc. So, as a preventive measure, multipurpose cyclone centres should be constructed in cyclone hit area.
Question 121
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Intensity of earthquake is measured using

A
Barometer

B
Pyrometer

C
Tachometer

D
Richter scale

Solution

The Richter scale is a scale of numbers used to tell the magnitude of earthquakes. Charles Richter developed the Richter Scale in 1935.
Question 122
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Which natural disaster is very rare in India?

A
Thunderstorm

B
Earthquake

C
Tornado

D
Cyclone

Solution

Tornadoes are quite rare in India.
A tornado is a rapidly rotating column of air that is in contact with both the surface of the Earth and a cumulonimbus cloud or, in rare cases, the base of a cumulus cloud.
Question 123
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Which of the following is/are abiotic natural resource(s)?

A
Microbes

B
Gold

C
Iron

D
Options (2) and (3)

Solution

Biotic resources are obtained from the biosphere (living and organic material), such as forests and animals, and the materials that can be obtained from them.
Abiotic resources are resources that are non-living. For example, water, minerals, metals (iron and gold), wind, solar energy etc.
Question 124
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Which of the following resources is a potential natural resource?

A
Petroleum

B
Gold

C
Iron

D
Copper

Solution

Potential resources are known to exist and may be used in the future. For example, petroleum may exist in many parts of India and Kuwait that have sedimentary rocks, but until the time it is actually drilled out and put into use, it remains a potential resource.
Question 125
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Which of the following rivers became the world's first natural resource to be given its own legal identity, with the rights, duties and liabilities of a legal person?

A
Whanganui

B
Tigris

C
Orinoco

D
Mekong

Solution

Whanganui became the world's first natural resource to be given its own legal identity, with the rights, duties and liabilities of a legal person. It is a river in New Zealand. The river is also known by the Maoris as Te Awa Tupua. It is represented by two nominees - one appointed by the Maori community, or Iwi, and one appointed by the government.
Question 126
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Directions: The question contains a pair of CAPITALISED words followed by five pairs of words. Choose the pair of words which best expresses the relationship similar to that expressed in the capitalized pair.

BEGINNING : ENDING

A
Symphony : Movement

B
Preface : Afterword

C
Introduction : Foreword

D
Prologue: Intermission

Solution

The preface to a book comes at the start, while an afterword comes at the very end.
Question 127
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Directions: In the following question, there is a relationship between the two terms to the left of : : and the same relationship holds between the two terms to its right, of which one term is missing. Identify the correct option.

ACF : GIL : : PRU : ?

A
VYA

B
VXZ

C
VXA

D
VAB

Solution

Each letter moves six steps forward to obtain corresponding letter.
P + 6 = V
R + 6 = X
U + 6 = A
The correct option is (3).
Question 128
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Directions: In the following question, there is a relationship between the two terms to the left of : : and the same relationship holds between the two terms to its right, of which one term is missing. One of the four given options contains the missing term. Identify the correct option.

MNO : RQP : : WXY : ?

A
ZAB

B
BAZ

C
ZBA

D
ABZ

Solution

MNO : RQP (reverse order of PQR)
Similarly, WXY : BAZ (reverse order of ZAB)
Question 129
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Directions: In the following question, there is some relationship between the two groups on the left of : : and the same relationship exists between the two groups on its right. Find the missing group.

PALE : LEAP : : POSH : ?

A
HSOP

B
POHS

C
SHOP

D
HOPS

Solution

The first, second, third and fourth letters of the second group are respectively the third, fourth, second and first letters of the first group.
Question 130
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Directions: In this question, the two terms given to the left of the sign (: :) bear a certain relationship to each other. The same relationship exists between the two terms to its right, out of which one is missing. Identify the relationship and find the missing term.

42 : 56 : : 110 : ?

A
18

B
132

C
136

D
140

Solution

Clearly,
42 = 7 × 6, and 56 = 7 × (6 + 2).
Similarly,
110 = 11 × 10
So, the required number = 11 × (10 + 2) = 11 × 12 = 132
Question 131
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Directions: There is some relationship between the two pairs of numbers on the left of the sign (: :). The same relationship exists between the two terms on the right, of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the given alternatives.

144 : 72 : : 198 : ?

A
200

B
199

C
100

D
99

Solution

The sequence is abc : . The missing number is = 99
Question 132
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Directions: In the following question, a series is given with one or two terms missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given options that will complete the series.

I2, K3, M5, O7, Q11, __

A
R12

B
S13

C
T15

D
S17

Solution

Here, one letter is skipped to get the next letter in the series, and the numbers are a list of prime numbers.
Question 133
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Directions: In the following question, a series is given with one or two terms missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given options that will complete the series.

6, 9, 18, 21, 42, 45, __

A
80

B
87

C
90

D
93

Solution

6 + 3 = 9, 9 × 2 = 18, 18 + 3 = 21, 21 × 2 = 42, 42 + 3 = 45 and so on.
The missing number is (45 × 2) = 90.
Question 134
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Directions: In the following question, a series is given with one or two terms missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given options that will complete the series.

3, 7, 16, 35, __

A
44

B
54

C
64

D
74

Solution

The pattern followed in the series is:
(Number × 2) + 1, (Number × 2) + 2, (Number × 2) + 3, (Number × 2) + 4 and so on.
Therefore, the missing number is (35 × 2) + 4 = 74.
Question 135
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Directions: Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern in the given series.

17, 13, 11, 7, 5, 1, ___

A
-3

B
1

C
0

D
-1

Solution

The given sequence is as follows.
17, 13, 11, 7, 5, 1, ___
13 - 17 = -4
11 - 13 = -2
7 - 11 = -4
5 - 7 = -2
1 - 5 = -4
x - 1 = -2
So, x = -2 + 1 = -1
Question 136
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Directions: Choose the letter which when placed at the sign of interrogation (?) would complete the matrix.

A
W

B
O

C
K

D
Z

Solution

In this, we will use the positions of letters in alphabetical order (where A = 1, B = 2, ... Z = 26).
In the second row,
R(18) - 3 = O(15)
O(15) - 4 = ?
? = 15 - 4 = 11; which is 'K'.
Question 137
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Directions: Choose the letter which when placed at the sign of interrogation (?) would complete the matrix.

A
T

B
P

C
N

D
L

Solution

In this, we will use the positions of letters in alphabetical order (where A = 1, B = 2, ... Z = 26).
In the first row, multiples of 3 are added to the position of the previous letter to the new position.
H(8) + 3 = K
K(11) + 6 = Q(17)

In the second row, multiples of 4 are added to the position of the previous letter to the new position.
C(3) + 4 = G
G(7) + 8 = O(15)

In the third row, multiples of 5 are added to the position of the previous letter to the new position.
E(5) + 5 = J
J(10) + 10 = T(20)
Question 138
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Which letter will replace the question mark (?) and complete the matrix?

A E D

I V M

G ? K

A
P

B
R

C
Q

D
T

Solution

If all the letters are assigned a numeric value according to the place they occupy in the English alphabet, then in this sequence, the sum of the letters in the first and the third box of each row is equal to the letter in the second box of the corresponding row.
A + D = 1 + 4 = 5 = E
I + M = 9 + 13 = 22 = V
G + K = 7 + 11 = 18 = R
Hence, option 2 is correct.
Question 139
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What number should come in place of the question mark to complete the third figure?

A
189

B
227

C
277

D
339

Solution

In figure 1: (1 × 2 × 5 × 3) + (1 + 2 + 5 + 3) = 30 + 11 = 41
In figure 2: (4 × 3 × 6 × 2) + (4 + 3 + 6 + 2) = 144 + 15 = 159
Similarly, in figure 3: (5 × 7 × 3 × 2) + (5 + 7 + 3 + 2) = 210 + 17 = 227
Question 140
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A is standing at 6^thposition and B is standing at 16^thposition from the right end of a row. How many people are standing between A and B?

A
8

B
9

C
10

D
11

Solution

A is at 6^thposition and B is at 16^thposition from the right. Therefore, number of people standing between them is 9.
Hence, answer option 2 is correct.
Question 141
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A policeman left his police post and proceeded 4 km towards South, after hearing a loud sound from a point A. On reaching point A, he heard another sound and proceeded 4 km to the left to reach another point B. From point B, he proceeded left to reach a point 4 km away. In which direction should he go to reach his police post?

A
North

B
South

C
East

D
West

Solution

The diagrammatic representation of the given information is as shown above.
In the diagram, I denotes the initial position and F denotes the final position.
From the diagram, it is the obvious that the policeman has to move in the West direction.
Hence, option (4) is correct.
Question 142
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Seven is added to a certain number. The sum is multiplied by 5, the product is divided by 9 and 3 is subtracted from the quotient. The remainder left is 12. What is the number?

A
20

B
30

C
40

D
5

Solution

Suppose, number = x
Then, – 3 = 12
(x + 7) × 5 = 15 × 9
x + 7 = 27
So, x = 20
Question 143
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How many triangles are there in the following figure?

A
8

B
10

C
11

D
12

Solution

We may label the given figure as shown.
The simplest triangles are ABG, BCG, CGE, CDE, AGE and AEF, i.e. 6 in number.
The triangles composed of two components each are ABE, ABC, BCE and ACE, i.e. 4 in number.
∴ There are 6 + 4 = 10 triangles in the figure.
Hence, option (2) is the right answer.
Question 144
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Directions: In the following question, four figures are given. Three of them are similar in some way, but one figure is unlike the other three. Select the figure which does not belong to the group.

A
(a)

B
(b)

C
(c)

D
(d)

Solution

At each instance, only one of the object orientations is altered as compared to the previous one; but in (d), orientations of two objects are changing simultaneously.
Question 145
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Directions: In the following question, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.

1. Wound
2. Writer
3. Whiter
4. Worst
5. Worked

A
1, 4, 3, 5, 2

B
2, 1, 3, 4, 5

C
3, 5, 4, 1, 2

D
5, 3, 2, 1, 4

Solution

The sequence of the words in the dictionary is - Whiter, Worked, Worst, Wound and Writer.
Hence, 3, 5, 4, 1 and 2 is the correct sequence, which is given in option (3).

Question 146

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In a certain coding system, 'PAGES' is coded as 23719 and 'GUEST' is coded as 75196. How will you code 'STAGE' in this coding system?

96351

92671

96371

96731

Solution

Each letter has a different code as shown:

Letters	P	A	G	E	S
Codes	2	3	7	1	9

Letters	G	U	E	S	T
Codes	7	5	1	9	6

So, the code for STAGE will be 96371.

Question 147
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If 2^nd August of a year is Tuesday, then what would be the day on 2^nd August after 3 years?

A
Friday

B
Saturday

C
Sunday

D
Cannot be determined

Solution

It is not mentioned if a leap year comes in those three years or not. If there is no leap year in between, then after 3 years, the day will be Friday. But if there is leap year in between, then the day will be Saturday.
Question 148
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From the given words, select the one which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

FAMISHED

A
SHADE

B
MEDIAS

C
MASHED

D
AMUSED

Solution

There is no U in the word FAMISHED, so AMUSED cannot be formed.
Question 149
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Which of the following four interchanges in signs would make the given equation correct?

115 ÷ 26 × 9 - 3 + 20 = 57

A
- and +

B
÷ and -

C
+ and ÷

D
+ and ×

Solution

Checking out the various options, we find that on executing the sign swap as given in option (2), the LHS of the equation becomes
115 - 26 × 9 ÷ 3 + 20 = 57
Using BODMAS,
115 - 78 + 20 = 57
57 = 57
LHS = RHS
Question 150
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If + stands for , - for , for - and for +, then find the value of 26 + 74 - 4 5 2.

A
220

B
376

C
478

D
488

Solution

26 74 4 - 5 + 2 = 481 - 5 + 2 = 478
Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.