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An animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium share which of the following structural features?
A plant that has a well-differentiated body, special tissues for transport of water and other substances, but does not have seeds or fruits is a/an
Pteridophytes are vascular plants which do not posses seeds and fruits.
Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain and the doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from peptic ulcers and treated him with antibiotics. He was relieved of the pain. What could be the reason for the peptic ulcers?
Bacteria Helicobacter pylori is responsible for the peptic ulcers.
The average temperature of the Earth remains fairly steady as compared to that of the Moon because of the
There is no atmosphere on the Moon, so temperature is variable. On Earth, the atmosphere acts like a blanket, trapping heat. Sunlight passes through the atmosphere, and warms up the ground. So, the atmosphere keeps the temperature fairly steady during day and night on the earth by trapping heat.
Which one of the following conditions in a flower will increase the chances of self-pollination?
If stamens are just above the stigma of the pistil in a flower, it increases the chances of self-pollination.
A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB' because it
A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to persons with blood group A or 'AB' because it has only 'A' antigen and 'b' antibodies.
What would happen to a person if the cerebellum of his brain is damaged?
Cerebellum coordinates muscular activity of the body. It also maintains equilibrium or posture of the body during walking, jumping, etc.
Which of the following statements are correct? A. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation. B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation. C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation. D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.
Tapeworm and earthworm both are hermaphrodites but in tapeworms self-fertilisation takes place while earthworm undergoes cross-fertilisation.
A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny. Crows on the tree eat beetles. Some green beetles appear among the red beetle because
Due to variations during sexual reproduction among red beetles one green beetle evolved among them. This green beetle can pass the colour to its progeny which are green beetles. As a result there are more and more green beetles in the beetle population. The progeny of green beetles increase due to natural selection which gives survival advantage.
A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny. Crows on the tree eat beetles.
The colour composition of the beetle population is likely to change in which of the following manners?
The green beetles cannot be seen by crows. So, they are not eaten. Increased feeding of red beetles by crow will result in drastic reduction of red beetles and increase in number of green beetles.
If non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such as DDT, enters the food chain, then the pollutant
A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating liquids A and B at a temperature of 22°C are placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid B. Which of the following can be said about the liquids A and B?
Since liquid A gives more cooling effect, latent heat of vaporisation of liquid A must be high. It takes away more heat from the skin as it converts from the liquid to the vapour form and thereby gives a greater cooling sensation.
Which of the following is a suitable example for illustrating the law of constant proportions? (Atomic mass of O = 16; H = 1)
The data in the option (1) demonstrates 'Law of constant proportions'. Hydrogen and oxygen always combine in the ratio 1:8 to form water.
An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell. Which of the following statements are true about element X? I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic table. II. Its atom contains 9 protons. III. It has a valency of 7. IV. Its atom can accept an electron to acquire noble gas configuration.
Element X, having atomic number 9, contains 9 protons and its valence shell contains 7 electrons. The element is fluorine, F(Z=9). Electronic configuration is: 2, 7 To acquire noble gas configuration, it can accept one electron.
The reaction between carbon and oxygen can be represented as C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + heat In which of the following type(s) can the above reaction be classified? I. Combustion reaction II. Displacement reaction III. Endothermic reaction IV. Combination reaction
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + heat
The given reaction represents combustion of carbon to form carbon dioxide. It is also a combination reaction as two reactants combine to form one product.
Which of the following is true about the two statements?
Statement I: Reactivity of aluminium decreases when it is dipped in nitric acid. Statement II: A protective layer of aluminium nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in nitric acid.
When Al is dipped in HNO3, it forms a layer of Al2O3, which decreases the reactivity of Al.
Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon will undergo combustion as well as addition reactions?
C2H2 and C3H6 are unsaturated hydrocarbons, so they can give both combustion and addition reaction.
An element X combines with hydrogen to form a compound XH3. X is the most abundant element in the atmosphere.
Which of the following statements are true about element X? A. It has 7 valence electrons. B. It exists as a metal and is solid at room temperature. C. Is a non-metal and occurs as a gas. D. It has 5 valence electrons. E. XH3 reacts with water to form a basic compound.
X is nitrogen and nitrogen is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere. N(Z=7): 2,5 It has five valence electrons. The compound mentioned is NH3.
NH3 + H2O → N H4OH (Base)
An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with another element Y (atomic number 17) to form a compound Z. Which of the following statements are true regarding this compound? I. Molecular formula of Z is XY2. II. It is soluble in water. III. X and Y are bonded by sharing of electrons. IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten state.
X = Mg Y = Cl Z = MgCl2 (XY2) MgCl2 is an ionic compound and it conducts electricity in the molten state. Hence, the statements I, II and IV are correct.
A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which is flat and measured several times over a large area. One day the reflected sound wave takes longer time than in previous measurements. The possible reason is that
Speed of sonar wave decreases in air and so it takes longer time.
A concave lens always gives a virtual image. For optical lenses worn by humans, which of the following statements is true?
All types of focal lengths are not possible because the range of the vision is from infinity to 25 cm for a normal person. A person with myopia (shortsightedness) can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. A concave lens corrects shortsightedness by making the image of object at infinite distance at far point The focal length of the concave lens = Far point ( image distance). Since the image should be formed at a greater distance than 25 cm, the focal length of the lens should be greater than 2.5 cm.
A geostationary satellite is orbiting around earth at a height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the earth is taken as 60,00 km. The geostationary satellite comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly 24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s2 and mass of satellite be 1000 kg. Calculate the work done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational force.
Work done under centripetal force is always zero because force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.
An open box is made from a square lamina of side 12 cm, by cutting equal squares at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. The volume of this box cannot be
Volume of the box V = x(12 - 2x)2 V = x(144 - 48x + 4x2) V = 4x(36 - 12x + x2) When V = 0 4x(x2 - 12x + 36) = 0 4x(x2 - 6x - 6x + 36) = 0 4x[x(x - 6) - 6(x - 6)] = 0 4x(x - 6)(x - 6) = 0 At x = 0 and x = 6, V = 0 So, 0 < x < 6 When x = 1, V = 100 When x = 2, V = 128 When x = 3, V = 108 When x = 4, V = 64 When x = 5, V = 20 Hence, volume of this box cannot be 130 c.c.
A has a pair of triangles with corresponding sides proportional, and B has a pair of pentagons with corresponding sides proportional, S1 ≡ A's triangles must be similar S2 ≡ B's pentagons must be similar Which of the following statement is correct?
SIMILAR POLYGON Definition-Two polygons are said to be similar to each other, if (1) their corresponding angles are equal, and (2) the lengths of their corresponding sides are proportional It should be noted that for the similarity of polygons with more than three sides, the two conditions given above in the definition are independent of each other, that is either of the two condition without the other is not sufficient for polygons with more than three sides to be similar. In other words, if the corresponding angles of two polygons are equal but lengths of their corresponding sides are not proportional, the polygon need not be similar. Similarly, if the corresponding angles of two polygons are not equal but lengths of their corresponding sides are proportional, the polygon need not be similar. Triangles are special type of polygons, in case of triangles if either of the two conditions holds, then the other holds automatically.
The square of an odd integer must be of the form
Let the odd number be of the form 4q + 1 or 4q + 3, then (4q + 1)2 = 16q2 + 1 + 8q = 8(2q2 + q) + 1 = 8n + 1 Or (4q + 3)2 = 16q2 + 9 + 24q = 8[2q2 + 3q + 1] + 1 = 8n + 1
The value of tan 1° tan 2° tan 3° .... tan 89° is
tan 1° tan 2° ...... tan 45°...... tan 89° = tan 1° tan 2° ..... 1 .... cot 2° cot 1° = 1
The equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has real roots if
ax2 + bx + c = 0 for real roots b2 - 4ac ≥ 0 if c = 0 Then b2 ≥ 0 This is always true.
An open box A is made from a square piece of tin by cutting equal squares S at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. Another open box B is made similarly using one of the squares S. If U and V are the volumes of A and B, respectively, then which of the following is not possible?
Let the side of tin = a So, U = (a – 2x)2 x Where x is the side of square which have been cut. Similarly V = (x – 2y)2y where y is the side of square which have been cut. Minimum value of U = 0 Minimum value of V = 0 So, U > V and V > U and U = V are possible But minimum value of U = 0 It cannot be greater than maximum value of V.
Which of the following statements is true?
Which of the following polygons are uniquely determined when all the sides are given?
Triangle is uniquely determined when all sides are given.
One integer is chosen out of 1, 2, 3, ....., 100. What is the probability that it is neither divisible by 4 nor by 6?
Total of numbers which are divisible by 4 or 6 = no. divisible by 4 + no. divisible by 6 - no. divisible by 4 and 6 = 25 + 16 - 8 = 33 So, required probability = 100-33/100 = 0.67
A solid metal sphere of surface area S1 is melted and recast into a number of smaller spheres. If S2 is the sum of the surface areas of all the smaller spheres, then
Total surface area of all spheres always increases when A solid metal sphere is melted and recast a number of smaller spheres.
Re. 1 and Rs. 5 coins are available (as many as required). Find the smallest payment, which cannot be made by these coins, if not more than 4 coins are allowed.
For option (1) Rs. 3 can be obtained by 3 Re. 1 coins, which is less then 4 coins. For option (2) Rs. 12 can be obtained by 2 Re. 1 coins and 2 Rs. 5 coins, which is equal to 4 coins. For option (3) Rs. 9 can be obtained by 4 Re. 1 coins and 1 Rs. 5 coin, which is more than 4 coins. For option (4) Rs. 13 can be obtained by 3 Re. 21 coins and 2 Rs. 5 coins, which is more then 4 coins. Smallest payment from Rs. 9 and Rs. 13 is Rs. 9.
The median of 1, 9, 4, 3, 7, 6, 8, 8, 12 and 15 is
Arrange the numbers in ascending order: 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 12, 15
So, Median = 7+8/2 = 7.5
From about 13th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be followed strictly to
From about 1294 to the time of the French Revolution in 1789, the people of France were expected to strictly follow what were known as "Sumptuary Laws". The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages and hunting game in certain areas.
On 3rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed to
(a) establish dictatorship in Germany (b) give Hitler the power to rule by decree (c) ban all trade unions (d) ban all political parties and their affiliates
On 3rd March 1933, the Famous enabling Act was passed. This Act established dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and Judiciary.
Enclosures in England were seen as
Enclosures in England were seen as necessary to make long term investments on land and plan crop rotations to improve the soil. Enclosures also allowed the richer landowners to expand the land under their control and produce more for the market.
The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region comprising
The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. It was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia - Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.
What was Rinderpest?
In Africa, in the 1890s, a fast spreading disease of cattle plague or rinderpest had a terrifying impact on people's livelihoods and the local economy.
Which of the following is a correct match?
Istri Dharam Vichar wrote by Shri Ram Chaddha, Kashibaba, a mill worker of Kanpur published 'Chote Aur Bada ka Sawal. Rassundari Devi, wrote a story of her life, 'Amar Jiban' (My life), that was published in 1876. Jyotiba Phula wrote Gulamgiri, it was based on the caste system.
Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God?
Deeply grateful to print, Martin Luther said, "Printing is the enacted gift of God and the greatest one."
The Forest Act of 1878 divided forests into
After the Forest Act was enacted in 1865, it was emended twice, once in 1878 and then in 1927. The 1878 Act divided forests into three categories reserved, protected and village forests.
Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the given options.
Statement I: Hitler said, ''In my state, the mother is the most important citizen.'' Statement II: In Nazi Germany, while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel-hearted; girls were told that they had to become good mothers.
In 1933 Hitler said, ''In my state, the mother is the most important citizen.'' Children in Nazi Germany were repeatedly told that women were radically different from men. The fight for equal rights for men and women that had become part of democratic struggles everywhere was wrong and it would destroy society. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they had to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the given options.
Statement I: The major cricket tournament of colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not represent regions but religious communities. Statement II: The victory of the 'Hindus' in the 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's war on 'untouchability'.
This history of gymkhana cricket led to first-class cricket being organised on communal and racial lines. 'The Hindus' brilliant victory was due more to the judicious and bold step of the Hindu Gymkhana in appointing Mr Vithal, brother of Mr Baloo – premier bowler of India – who is a member of the Untouchable Class to captain the Hindu team. The moral that can be safely drawn from the Hindus' magnificent victory is that removal of Untouchability would lead to swaraj – which is the prophecy of the Mahatma.'
Match the following columns:
Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association in August 1930. Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience movement in March 1930 and ended in March 1931. In December 1929, Lahore congress adopted the demands for 'Purna Swaraj'.
Statement I: The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great Britain". Statement II: The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.
The Act of union 1707, led the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
Statement I: Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled. Statement II: Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily. Statement III: Potato reached the West through travellers and became the staple diet of the poor.
Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled and Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily.
Assertion (A): Gandhiji's idea of satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth. Reasoning (R): Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
According to Gandhiji, without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence. This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
Assertion (A): The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement. Reason (R): People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
On 6th April, Gandhiji and his followers reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Assertion (A): Coal is a fossil fuel. Reason (R): It is formed due to compression of inorganic material over millions of years. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
In India, coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel. It is formed due to compression of plant material over millions of years.
Assertion (A): The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat. Reason (R): Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of 2 hours. The latitudinal extent influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north. Arunachal Pradesh lies on the easternmost longitude hence sun rises first in the state.
Assertion (A): In India, east coast has more seaports than the west coast. Reason (R): The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
In India, west coast has more seaports than the east coast. The western coast being more indented than the eastern coast provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours. So, statement A is false. The eastern coastal plain is broader and is an example of an emergent coast. So R is true.
Assertion (A): The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter. Reason (R): The winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter because (i) Cyclonic disturbances occur from the West and the North-West. (ii) These low-pressure systems originate over the Mediterranean sea and Western Asia and move into India alongwith Westerly flow. (iii) They cause winter rains over Punjab, Haryana and Northern plains During the winter season, North-East trade winds prevail over India. They blow from land to sea and that is why that for most part of the country, it is a dry season. A part of North-East trade winds blow over Bay of Bengal. They gather moisture which causes rainfall in the Coromandel coast while the rest of the country remains dry.
Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?
The four major ports of India that lie on the Golden Quadrilateral are Kolata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam and Chennai.
Assertion (A): The Himalayan ranges show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra. Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which changes with altitude.In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types.
Which of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion?
A. Ploughing along contour lines B. Strip cropping C. Jhumming D. Mixed farming
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes, is called contour. Ploughing large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This method called strip cropping.
Assertion (A): Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate. Reason (R): Himalaya mountain ranges protect it from the northerly cold winds.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
The Tropic of cancer passes through the middle of the country. Almost half of the country lying south of the Tropic of cancer, belongs to the Tropical area. The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from Central Asia from entering the subcontinent. It is because of these mountains that this subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia. Hence, the Indian climate is tropical in nature.
Which of the following features has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?
Chotanagpur Plateau marks the further eastward extension drained by the Domodar river.
Assertion (A): Sex Ratio in India is low. Reason (R): Indian society has been unfavourable to females. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population. According to 2001, the sex ratio is 933.
A pilot takes off from an airport at 15°S latitude and flies 55° due North. What latitude has the pilot reached?
The pilot reached at 0o by travelling 15o towards north. He will reach the latitude 40o by flying for another 40o (The total distance being 15o + 40o = 55o)
Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Which of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?
The Indian Constitution defines India as Republic. Republic in the Indian Constitution means the Head of the State, Hon'ble President is elected directly or indirectly for a fixed period of five years. The Head of the State is not a king or queen who is made through succession.
According to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, which of the following is 'heart and soul' of our Constitution?
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies as the 'heart and soul' of our Constitution because it is the only right that makes the rest of the rights effective. When any of our rights are violated we can seek remedy through courts.
Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the following statements support this claim?
A.It is a more accountable form of government. B.It improves the quality of decision making. C.It ensures rapid economic development of citizens. D.It enhances the dignity of citizens.
Democracy is better form of government. It is an accountable government i.e it is responsible for its own actions, decisions and policies. It is also answerable to the people. Thus the quality of decision making is improved in democracy. Democracy enchances the dignity of the people as it considers everyone as equals and does not discriminate or favour anybody. However, democracy does not ensure economic development.
The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because
In 73rd Amendment Act, at least one-third of seats in Local Self Government are reserved for women because women constitute nearly half of the population.
In which of the following economies are people more of a resource?
Low illiteracy level shows the category of developed country. Besides high life expectancy is an indication of a better economy, and hence the people are more of a resource.
Which of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and 2003?
In Indian economy between 1973 and 2003, the sectorial share of agriculture in output decreased for more than its share in total employment.
Which of the following can be considered as Foreign Direct investment made in India?
A. The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad. B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed company. C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala. D. The US multinational Google opens its full-fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.
D is the example of foreign direct investment; a foreign company investing in India.
We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because
We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the government of the country.
Which of the following refers to trade barrier in the context of WTO?
I. Restrictions on domestic trade II. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies
World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade. It is not involved in domestic trade.
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