Self Studies

NTSE - SAT-PB-2013

Result Self Studies

NTSE - SAT-PB-2013
  • Score

    -

    out of -
  • Rank

    -

    out of -
TIME Taken - -
Self Studies

SHARING IS CARING

If our Website helped you a little, then kindly spread our voice using Social Networks. Spread our word to your readers, friends, teachers, students & all those close ones who deserve to know what you know now.

Self Studies Self Studies
Weekly Quiz Competition
  • Question 1
    1 / -0

    Which of the following structural features are common in an animal cell, a plant cell and a bacterium?

    Solution

    Animal cell, plant cell and bacterium cell have plasma membrane, cytoplasm and ribosomes as common part.

     

  • Question 2
    1 / -0

    A plant that has well differentiated body, special tissues for transport of water and other substances, but does not have seed or fruits is a/an

    Solution

    Pteridophytes are vascular plants which do not posses seeds and fruits.

     

  • Question 3
    1 / -0

    Raju was suffering from severe stomach pain. The doctor diagnosed that he was suffering from peptic ulcer and treated him with antibiotics. He was relieved of the pain. What could be the reason for peptic ulcer?

    Solution

    Bacteria Helicobacter pylori is responsible for peptic ulcer.

     

  • Question 4
    1 / -0

    The average temperature of the Earth remains fairly steady as compared to that of the moon because of the

    Solution

    There is no atmosphere on moon so temperature is variable.

     

  • Question 5
    1 / -0

    In flowers, which of the following conditions will increase chances of self-pollination?

    Solution

    If stamens are just above the stigma of pistil in a flower it increases chances of self pollination.

     

  • Question 6
    1 / -0

    A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to the persons with blood group 'A' or 'AB' because it

    Solution

    A person with blood group 'A' can donate blood to persons with blood group A or 'AB' because it has only 'A' antigen and 'b' antibodies.

     

  • Question 7
    1 / -0

    What would happen to a person if cerebellum of his brain is damaged?

    Solution

    Cerebellum coordinates muscular activity of the body. It also maintains equilibrium or posture of the body during walking, jumping, etc.

     

  • Question 8
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation.
    B. Earthworms are hermaphrodites and undergo self-fertilisation.
    C. Tapeworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.
    D. Earthworms are hermaphrodites but undergo cross-fertilisation.

    Solution

    Tapeworm and earthworm both are hermaphrodites but in tapeworms self fertilisation takes place while earthworm undergoes cross-fertilisation.

     

  • Question 9
    1 / -0

    A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny.

    Crows on the tree eat beetles.

    Some green beetles appear among the red beetle because

    Solution

    In this case natural selection is directing evolution in the beetle population. Natural selection brings about improved adaptive relations between organisms and environment by favouring the reproduction and survival of more suited organism to the given environment.

     

  • Question 10
    1 / -0

    A group of red beetles lives on green leaves of a tree. BeetIes multiply through sexual reproduction. One day, some green beetles are seen among the red beetles. Green beetles breed to produce green progeny.

    Crows on the tree eat beetles.

    The colour composition of beetle population is likely to change in the following manner:

    Solution

    The green beetles cannot be seen by crows. So they are not eaten. Increased feeding of red beetles by crow will result in drastic reduction of red beetles and increased number of green beetles in the population.

     

  • Question 11
    1 / -0

    Non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such as DDT enters the food chain, the pollutant

    Solution

    Non-degradable and fat soluble pollutant, such as DDT enters the food chain and magnifies in concentration at each trophic level. It is known as biomagnification.

     

  • Question 12
    1 / -0

    A drop each of two non-corrosive and non-irritating liquids A and B at a temperature of 22°C are placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a more cooling sensation than liquid B. Which of the following can be said about the liquids A and B?

    Solution

    If liquid A gives more cooling effect then latent heat of vaporisation of liquid A is low.

     

  • Question 13
    1 / -0

    There is a mixture of three solid compounds A, B and C. Out of these compounds, A and C are soluble in water, while B is insoluble, and C is sublimable also. In what sequence can the following techniques be used for their effective separation?

    I. Filtration
    II. Sublimation
    Ill. Crystallisation from water extract
    IV. Dissolution in water

    Solution

    First of all 'C' can be separated from the mixture by sublimation. Thereafter, the mixture of 'A' and 'B' can be put in water, filtered to separate B and recover A by crystallisation.

     

  • Question 14
    1 / -0

    An element X has 7 electrons in its L shell. What is true about the element X?

    I. It belongs to period 9 of modern periodic table.
    II. Its atom contains 9 protons.
    III. It has a valency of 7.
    IV. Its atoms can accept an electron to acquire noble gas configuration.

    Solution

    Element X having atomic number 9, contain 9 protons and its valence shell contains 7 electrons, to acquire noble gas configuration it accept one electron.

     

  • Question 15
    1 / -0

    A salt can be produced by reaction between

    A. an acid and a base
    B. metal oxide and water
    C. metal and a mineral acid
    D. metal oxide and a mineral acid

    Solution

    Acid + Base → Salt + Water
    Metal + Mineral Acid → Salt + Hydrogen
    Metal Oxide + Mineral Acid → Salt + Water

     

  • Question 16
    1 / -0

    Which of the following is true about the two statements?

    Statement I : Reactivity of aluminium decreases when it is dipped in nitric acid.
    Statement II: A protective layer of aluminium nitrate is formed when aluminium is dipped in nitric acid.

    Solution

    When Al is dipped in HNO3, it forms layer of Al2O3 which decrease the reactivity of Al.

     

  • Question 17
    1 / -0

    Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon will undergo combustion as well as addition reactions?

    Solution

    C2H2 & C3H6 are unsaturated hydrocarbon so they can give combustion and addition reaction both.

     

  • Question 18
    1 / -0

    An element X (atomic number 12) reacts with another element Y (atomic number 17) to form a compound Z. Which of the following statements are true regarding this compound?

    I. Molecular formula of Z is XY2
    II. It is soluble in water
    III. X and Y are joined by sharing of electrons
    IV. It would conduct electricity in the molten state

    Solution

    X = Mg
    Y = Cl
    Z = MgCl2 (XY2)
    MgCl2 is an ionic compound and it conducts electricity in molten state.

     

  • Question 19
    1 / -0

    A ship sends a sonar wave to the sea bed which is flat and measured several times over a large area, One day the reflected sound wave takes longer time than in previous measurements. The possible reason is

    Solution

    Speed of sonar wave decreases in air and so it takes longer time.

     

  • Question 20
    1 / -0

    A concave lens always gives a virtual image. In optical lenses worn by humans which of the following statements is true?

    Solution

    Image of a far object must be produced by the concave lens at a distance more than 25 cm from the eye.
    So all focal lengths of concave lens are not possible.

     

  • Question 21
    1 / -0

    A geo-stationary satellite is orbiting around earth at height of 30,000 km in circular orbit. The radius of the earth is taken as 6000 km. The geo-stationary satellite comes back to its position after one revolution in exactly 24 hours. Let the acceleration due to gravity (g) be 10 m/s2 and mass of satellite be 1000 kg; calculate the work done in 12 hours when moving under gravitational force.

    Solution

    Work done under centripetal force is always zero because force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.

     

  • Question 22
    1 / -0

    A has a pair of triangles corresponding sides proportional, and B has a pair of pentagons with corresponding sides proportional,
    S1  " A`s triangles must be similar
    S2 ≡ " B`s pentagons must be similar
    Which of the following statement is correct?

    Solution

    SIMILAR POLYGON

    Definition-Two polygons are said to be similar to each other, if
    (1) their corresponding angles are equal, and
    (2) the lengths of their corresponding sides are proportional
    It should be noted that for the similarity of polygons with more than three sides, the two conditions given above in the definition are independent of each other, that is either of the two condition without the other is not sufficient for polygons with more than three sides to be similar. In other words, if the corresponding angles of two polygons are equal but lengths of their corresponding sides are not proportional, the polygon need not be similar. Similarly, if the corresponding angles of two polygons are not equal but lengths of their corresponding sides are proportional, the polygon need not be similar.
    Triangles are special type of polygons, in case of triangles if either of the two conditions holds, then the other holds automatically.

     

  • Question 23
    1 / -0

    Which of the following numbers is the fourth power of a natural number?

    Solution

    6765201 = (51)4

     

  • Question 24
    1 / -0

    The square of an odd integer must be of the form:

    Solution

    Let the odd no. Will be of the form 4q + 1 or 4q + 3 then
    (4q +1)2 = 16q2 + 1 + 8q = 8 (2q2+ q) + 1
    = 8n + 1
    Or (4q + 3)2 = 16q2 + 9 + 24q = 8[2q2 + 3q +1} + 1
    = 8n + 1

     

  • Question 25
    1 / -0

    The value of tan 1º tan 2º tan 3º …. tan89º is:

    Solution

    tan 1º tan 2º ………… tan 89º
    = tan 1º tan 2º ………. cot 2º cot 1º

     

  • Question 26
    1 / -0

    ax2 + bx + c = 0, where a, b, c are real, has real roots if :

    Solution

    ax2 + bx + c = 0
    for real roots
    b2 - 4ac ≥0
    if c = 0
    then b2 ≥ 0
    this is always true.

     

  • Question 27
    1 / -0

    An open box A is made from a square piece of tin by cutting equal squares S at the corners and folding up the remaining flaps. Another open box B is made similarly using one of the squares S. If U and V are the volumes of A and B respectively, then which of the following is not possible?

    Solution

    Let the side of tin = a
    So, U = (a - 2x)2 x
    Where x is the side of square which have been cut.
    Similarly V = (x - 2y)2y
    where y is the side of square which have been cut.
    Minimum value of U = 0
    Minimum value of V = 0
    So, U > V and V > U and U = V are possible
    But minimum value of U = 0
    It cannot be greater than maximum value of V.

     

  • Question 28
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements holds always?

    Solution

    Every parallelogram is a trapezium.

     

  • Question 29
    1 / -0

    Which of the following polygons are uniquely determined when all the sides are give?

    Solution

    Triangle is uniquely determined when all sides are given.

     

  • Question 30
    1 / -0

    One integer is chosen out of I, 2, 3, …., 100. What is the probability that it is neither divisible by 4 nor by 6

    Solution

     

    Total no. which are divisible by 4 and 6 will be 33
    So Required probability = 0.67

     

  • Question 31
    1 / -0

    A solid metal sphere of surface area S1 is melted and recast into a number of smaller spheres. S2 is the sum of the surface areas of all the smaller spheres. Then

    Solution

    Total surface area of all spheres always increases when A solid metal sphere is melted and recantation a number of smaller spheres.

     

  • Question 32
    1 / -0

    Re. 1 and Rs. 5 coins are available (as many required). Find the smallest payment which cannot be made by these coins, if not more than 5 coins are allowed.

    Solution

    14 is the required number because
    14 = 5 + 5 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 6 coins are required.

     

  • Question 33
    1 / -0

    Median of a data number which has number of observations below and above it. The median set is a an equal below and of the data

    1, 9, 4, 3, 7, 6, 8, 8, 12, 15 is

    Solution

    Median of 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 8, 9, 12, 15
    Will be any number between 7 and 8 (as per the definition of median given in the question).

     

  • Question 34
    1 / -0

    From about 13th century to the time of the French Revolution sumptuary laws were expected to be followed strictly to :

    Solution

    From about 1294 to the time of the French Revolution in 1789, the people of France were expected to strictly follow what were known as "Sumptuary Laws". The laws tried to control the behaviour of those considered social inferiors, preventing them from wearing certain clothes, consuming certain foods and beverages and hunting game in certain areas.

     

  • Question 35
    1 / -0

    Choose the correct response from the given options.

    On 3rd March 1933 the famous Enabling Act was passed to:

    (a) establish dictatorship in Germany.
    (b) give Hitler the power to rule by decree.
    (c) ban all trade unions.
    (d) ban all political parties and their affiliates.

    Solution

    On 3rd March 1933, the Famous enabling Act was passed. This Act established dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and Judiciary.

     

  • Question 36
    1 / -0

    Enclosures in England were seen as:

    Solution

    Enclosures in England were seen as necessary to make long term investments on land and plan crop rotations to improve the soil. Enclosures also allowed the richer landowners to expand the land under their control and produce more for the market.

     

  • Question 37
    1 / -0

    The Balkans, which was a serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, was a region comprising

    Solution

    The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Mecedonia, Croatia, Bosnia - Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs.

     

  • Question 38
    1 / -0

    What was Rinderpest?

    Solution

    In Africa, in the 1890s, a fast spreading disease of cattle plague or rinderpest had a terrifying impact on people`s livelihoods and the local economy.

     

  • Question 39
    1 / -0

    Which of the following is a correct match?

    Solution

    "Istri Dharam Vichar" wrote by Shri Ram Chaddha, Kashibaba, a mill worker of Kanpur published `Chote Aur Bada ka Sawal". Rassundari Devi, wrote a story of her life, `Amar Jiban` (My life), that was published in 1876. Jyotiba Phula wrote Gulamgiri, it was based on the caste system.

     

  • Question 40
    1 / -0

    Printing created possibilities of wider circulation of ideas. Who of the following hailed printing as the ultimate gift of God?

    Solution

    Deeply grateful to print, Martin Luther said, "Printing is the enacted gift of God and the greatest one."

     

  • Question 41
    1 / -0

    The forest Act of 1878 divided forests into:

    Solution

    After the Forest Act was enacted in 1865, it was emended twice, once in 1878 and then in 1927. The 1878 Act divided forests into three categories reserved, protected and village forests.

     

  • Question 42
    1 / -0

    Consider the following statements and identify the correct response from the options given thereafter:

    Statement I: Hitler said `In may state the mother is the most important citizen`.
    Statement II: In Nazi Germany while boys were taught to be aggressive, muscular and steel hearted; girls were told that they had to become good mothers.

    Solution

    In 1933 Hitler said: `In my state the mother is the most important citizen.` Children in Nazi Germany were repeatedly told that women were radically different from men. The fight for equal rights for men and women that had become part of democratic struggles everywhere was wrong and it would destroy society. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel hearted, girls were told that they had to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.

     

  • Question 43
    1 / -0

    Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:

    Statement I: The major cricket tournament of colonial India, the 'Quadrangular' did not represent regions but religious communities.
    Statement II: The victory of the 'Hindus' in the 'Quadrangular' cricket tournament in 1923 was equated by a cricket fan with Gandhiji's war on 'untouchability'.

    Solution

    This history of gymkhana cricket led to first-class cricket being organised on communal and racial lines.
    The Hindus' brilliant victory was due more to the judicious and bold step of the Hindu Gymkhana in appointing Mr Vithal, brother of Mr Baloo – premier bowler of India – who is a member of the Untouchable Class of captain the Hindu team. The moral that can be safely drawn from the Hindus' magnificent victory is that removal of Untouchability would lead to swaraj – which is the prophecy of the Mahatma.'

     

  • Question 44
    1 / -0

    Match the following columns:

      Column A   Column B
    (I)

    Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association

    (A)

    December, 1929

    (II)

    Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience Movement

    (B)

    August, 1930

    (III)

    Gandhiji ended the Civil Disobedience Movement

    (C)

    March, 1930

    (IV)

    Congress adopted the demand for `Purna Swaraj`

    (D)

    March, 1931

    Solution

    Ambedkar established the Depressed Classes Association in August 1930. Gandhiji began the Civil Disobedience movement in March 1930 and ended in March 1931. In December 1929, Lahore congress adopts the demands for `Purna Swaraj`.

     

  • Question 45
    1 / -0

    Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:

    Statement I: The Act of Union 1707 led to the formation of the "United Kingdom of Great Britain".
    Statement II: The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.

    Solution

    The Act of union 1707, led the formation of the United Kingdom of Great Britain.

     

  • Question 46
    1 / -0

    Consider the following statements and choose the correct response from the options given thereafter:

    Statement I: Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled.
    Statement II: Noodles most likely travelled from China through Arab traders to Sicily.
    Statement III: Potato reached the West through travellers and became the staple diet of the poor.

    Solution

    Traders and travellers introduced new crops to the land they travelled and Noodles most likely traveled from China through Arab traders to Sicily.

     

  • Question 47
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A): Gandhijis idea of satyagraha emphasised on the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
    Reasoning (R): Gandhiji believed that a satyagrahi could win the battle by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

    Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    According Gandhi ji, with out seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a Satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence. This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.

     

  • Question 48
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A): The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-cooperation Movement.
    Reason (R): People in the Civil Disobedience Movement were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    On 6th April Gandhi ji and his followers reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience movement.

     

  • Question 49
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A) :Coal is a fossil fuel.
    Reason(R) : It is formed due to compression of inorganic material over millions of years.

    Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    In India, Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel. It is formed due to compression of plant material over millions of years.

     

  • Question 50
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A) : The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh about two hours before Gujarat.
    Reason(R) :Arunachal Pradesh is on a higher latitude than Gujarat. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh there is a time lag of 2 hours. The latitudinal extent influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north. Arunachal Pradesh lies on the easternmost longitude hence sun rises first in the state.

     

  • Question 51
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A) : In India, east coast has more seaports than the west coast.
    Reason(R) : The east coast is broader and is an example of emergent coast. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    Long coastline of 7516.6 km, India is dotted with 12 major and 181 medium and minor ports.

     

  • Question 52
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A) : The north western parts of India receive rainfall in winter.
    Reason (R) : The winter rainfall in India occurs due to North East monsoon.

    Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    During winter season, the northeast trade winds prevail over the country. They blow from land to sea and hence, for most part of the country, it is a dry season. Some amount of rainfall occurs on the Tamil Nadu coast from these winds as, here they blow from sea to land.

     

  • Question 53
    1 / -0

    Which four major ports of India lie on the Golden Quadrilateral?

    Solution

    The four major ports of India lie on the golden Quadrilateral is Kolkata, Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam and Chennai.

     

  • Question 54
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A):The Himalayan ranges show change in vegetation from tropical to tundra.
    Reason (R): In mountainous area with increase in altitude there is corresponding decrease in temperature, which leads to change in vegetation types.

    Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    In mountainous area, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the corresponding change in natural vegetation.

     

  • Question 55
    1 / -0

    Which of the following methods are used to restrict soil erosion?

    A. Ploughing along contour lines
    B. Strip cropping
    C. Jhumming
    D. Mixed farming

    Solution

    Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes, is called contour ploughing large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This method called strip cropping.

     

  • Question 56
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A) :Although only the southern part of India lies in tropical region, the whole of India has tropical climate.
    Reason (R):Himalaya mountain ranges protect it from the northerly cold winds. Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    The Tropic of cancer passes through the middle of the country. Almost half of the country lying south of the Tropic of cancer, belongs to the Tropical area. The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from Central Asia from entering the subcontinent. It is because of these mountains that this subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia. Hence Indian Climate is tropical in nature.

     

  • Question 57
    1 / -0

    Which of the following feature has similar geological structure with Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong plateau and Cachar Hills?

    Solution

    Chotanagpur Plateau marks the further eastward extension drained by the Domodar river.

     

  • Question 58
    1 / -0

    Assertion (A):Sex Ratio in India is low.
    Reason (R):Indian society has been unfavourable to females.

    Select the correct option from the given alternatives.

    Solution

    Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the population. According to 2001, the sex ratio is 933.

     

  • Question 59
    1 / -0

    A pilot takes off from an airport at 15ºS latitude and flies 55º due North. What latitude the pilot has reached?

    Solution

    The pilot has reached at 70ºN.

     

  • Question 60
    1 / -0

    Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

    Solution

    Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between central authority and various constituent units of the country.

     

  • Question 61
    1 / -0

    Which of these features is not a guiding value of the Indian Constitution?

    Solution

    According to Indian Constitution, All people are equal before the law and free to chose any religion.

     

  • Question 62
    1 / -0

    According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following is `heart and soul` of our Constitution?

    Solution

    According to B.R. Ambedkar, Right to Constitutional Remedies is the "Heart and Soul" of our Constitution.

     

  • Question 63
    1 / -0

    Democracy is considered to be better than other forms of government. Which of the following statements support this claim?

    A. It is a more accountable form of government.
    B. It improves the quality of decision making.
    C. It ensures rapid economic development of citizens.
    D. It enhances the dignity of citizens.

    Solution

    Democracy is better form of government because, it is more accountable form of government and it enhances the dignity of citizens.

     

  • Question 64
    1 / -0

    The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because

    Solution

    In 73rd Amendment Act, at least one third of seats in Local Self Government are reserved for women because women constitute nearly half of the population.

     

  • Question 65
    1 / -0

    In which of the following economies are people more of a resource?

    Solution

    Low illiteracy level show the category of developed country.

     

  • Question 66
    1 / -0

    Which of the following statements is true of agriculture in Indian economy between 1973 and 2003?

    Solution

    In Indian economy between 1973 and 2003, the sectorial share of agriculture in output has decreased for more than its share in total employment.

     

  • Question 67
    1 / -0

    Which of the following can be considered as Foreign Direct Ins investment made in India?

    A. The TATAs acquire Corus steel plant abroad.
    B. Mr. Donald, an American citizen, acquires 100 shares of an Indian listed company.
    C. The remittances sent by an Indian doctor in Dubai back to his hometown in Kerala.
    D. The US multinational Google opens its full-fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana.

    Solution

    The U.S multinational Google opens it full fledged unit at Gurgaon, Haryana is the example of foreign direct investment.

     

  • Question 68
    1 / -0

    We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because

    Solution

    We accept paper money as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorized by the government of the country.

     

  • Question 69
    1 / -0

    Which of the following refers to trade barrier in the context of WTO?

    I. Restrictions on domestic trade
    II. Not allowing companies to do foreign trade beyond specific quantity
    III. Restrictions on the export and import of goods
    IV. Restrictions on the price fixed by companies

    Solution

    World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade. It is not involved in domestic trade.

     

Self Studies
User
Question Analysis
  • Correct -

  • Wrong -

  • Skipped -

My Perfomance
  • Score

    -

    out of -
  • Rank

    -

    out of -
Re-Attempt Weekly Quiz Competition
Self Studies Get latest Exam Updates
& Study Material Alerts!
No, Thanks
Self Studies
Click on Allow to receive notifications
Allow Notification
Self Studies
Self Studies Self Studies
To enable notifications follow this 2 steps:
  • First Click on Secure Icon Self Studies
  • Second click on the toggle icon
Allow Notification
Get latest Exam Updates & FREE Study Material Alerts!
Self Studies ×
Open Now