Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

The Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27 helps students practise important questions and prepare for the upcoming TALLENTEX examination. Students can use these mock tests to understand the exam pattern, improve their speed and check their preparation level. The mock test includes questions from Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Mental Ability, based on the prescribed syllabus.

Students can download the Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test PDF and practise exam-style questions before appearing for the examination. Regular practice also helps students identify weak topics and improve their time management skills.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27: Overview

The Allen TALLENTEX examination is a scholarship and talent assessment exam conducted by ALLEN Career Institute. The Class 7 mock test follows the exam pattern and includes multiple-choice questions with four options. Students can check the important exam details below.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

Students preparing for the examination can download the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF to practise important questions. The practice paper contains 70 MCQs covering all five subjects. Students should solve the complete paper within the given time to assess their preparation. Students can access the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test PDF through the link provided below.

👉 Download PDF: Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27

Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test 2026-27

Section A : Physics

1. A coil is wrapped around an iron nail and connected to a cell as shown in the given figure. The coil behaves like a magnet only if

(1) switch is close
(2) switch is open
(3) cell is replaced by a plastic wire
(4) cell is replaced by a bulb

2. Ram has three different wires.
J : 14 cm
K : 6.8 m
L : 203 mm
Which of the following options shows the arrangement of the wires from the longest to the shortest?

(1) K → J → L
(2) K → L → J
(3) J → L → K
(4) L → J → K

3. An apartment has burnt down. On the house across the street, all of the decorative covering is twisted and warped by the heat. The heat was transferred across the street by

(1) convection
(2) conduction
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) all conduction, convection and radiation

4. The bimetallic strip as shown in figure is made by joining a less expanding material such as steel with a more expanding material such as brass. Then match the following columns

Column - I
(i) A hot bi-metallic strip
(ii) A cold bi-metallic strip

Column - II
(a) ----
(b) ----

(1) (i) - (a); (ii) - (a)
(2) (i) - (a); (ii) - (b)
(3) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a)
(4) (i) - (b); (ii) - (b)

5. There are n steps each of dimension l, b & h. If an ant climbs n steps, then what is the distance covered by it?

(1) nh + nb
(2) h + nb
(3) nh + b
(4) None of these

6. Which of the following figure shows the strongest magnet?

7. We can increase the strength of an Electromagnet by:-

(1) Increasing the magnitude of current through it.
(2) Increasing the number of turns of coil around it.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

8. The circuit diagram below shows D-cells connected to four light bulbs and four different materials labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4.

Which one of the materials is not a conductor of electric current?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9. 15 cm is equal to

(1) 150 mm
(2) 15 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 0.15 mm

10. Match the following columns :

Column - I
(i) Absolute zero temperature
(ii) Boiling point of water
(iii) Freezing point of water
(iv) Normal body temperature

Column - II
(a) 212 °F
(b) –273 °C
(c) 273 K
(d) 310 K

(1) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d)
(2) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
(3) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (c); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)

11. When a plastic comb is rubbed on dry hair, then plastic comb acquires

(1) Positive charge
(2) Negative charge
(3) May be positive or negative
(4) Neutrality

Section B : Chemistry

12. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a) China Rose turns green in detergent solution.
(b) The acid found in apple is oxalic acid.
(c) All alkalis are bases.
(d) Acids are bitter in taste.

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

13. Mr. Mark was teaching the students about the solubility of substances. He brought three conical flasks filled with water and labelled them as A, B and C. He then asked one of his students to add any three substances to the conical flask such that the substance 1 and 3 are soluble and substance 2 is insoluble. Identify the substances 1, 2 and 3 from the options given below.

14. Observe the given figure carefully and select the correct option.

(1) It is a neutralisation reaction.
(2) It will produce common salt and water.
(3) pH of solution will be 7.
(4) All of these

15. Study the table given below.

Identify X and Y :

(1) X – Bran, Y – Paddy
(2) X – Wheat, Y – Husk
(3) X – Wheat, Y – Saw dust
(4) X – Husk, Y – Sand

16. Which of the following are neutralisation reactions ?

A. 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
B. H₂SO₄ + 2NH₄OH → (NH₄)₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
C. Ca(OH)₂ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + 2H₂O
D. NaOH + HNO₃ → NaNO₃ + H₂O

(1) A & B
(2) A, B & D
(3) C & D
(4) All of these

17. Abraham and Manju were discussing about petrol and diesel.
Abraham - Where do we get petrol and diesel?
Manju - From deep under the earth crust.
Abraham - Then we don't need to buy it. We can get it using borewell like we pump out water.
Manju - It is not found everywhere. We need big machine to pump it out and clean it.
Abraham - How will vehicles run if the petrol and diesel finish?
Manju - ______
What would have been correct reply?

(1) On coal as it gives less smoke.
(2) On kerosene as it gives less smoke.
(3) On CNG as it gives less smoke.
(4) On petroleum as it gives less smoke.

18. Identify I, II, III & IV from the following flow chart.

(1) I - Hand picking, II - Decantation, III - Sieving, IV - Evaporation
(2) I - Sieving, II - Filtration, III - Hand picking, IV - Evaporation
(3) I - Sieving, II - Filtration, III - Hand picking, IV - Churning
(4) I - Hand picking, II - Sieving, III - Filtration, IV - Churning

19. A gas that is colourless, odourless and extinguishes fire is

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Helium
(4) Oxygen

20. Study the flow chart given below. Which of the following materials can P, Q and R be ?

21. Which of the following can be placed in the area marked 'P' in given venn diagram?

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Water
(3) Clay
(4) Paper

22. Seema took orange juice in one glass and soap solution in another glass. Then she took strips of blue litmus and red litmus and dipped those into both glasses one by one. What changes will she observe?

(1) Red litmus paper turns blue in orange juice.
(2) Red litmus paper turns blue in soap solution.
(3) Blue litmus paper remains same in orange juice.
(4) Blue litmus paper turns red in soap solution.

Section C : Biology

23. Which of the following is an organism having green coloured part which can photosynthesize but still it eats the other organism to obtain specific nutrients?

(1) Pea plant
(2) Pitcher plant
(3) Grapevine
(4) Sunflower plant

24. Given below are six statements (a – f). Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in any four of these statement.
(a) The movement of leaf in response to touch is called ______.
(b) Earthworm breathes through its moist ______.
(c) Whales and dolphins have ______ as their respiratory organ.
(d) The removal of metabolic waste products from the body of living organisms is called ______.
(e) Potato can vegetatively reproduce by ______.
(f) Movement of plant in response to gravity is called ______.

(1) b – skin, c – lungs, d – egestion, e – bulb
(2) a – thigmotropism, b – skin, e – tuber, f – chemotropism
(3) a – thigmotropism, b – skin, c – lungs, f – geotropism
(4) c – lungs, d – excretion, e – bulb, f – geotropism

25. Read the following statements carefully and select the option which correctly identifies the True (T) and False (F) statements.
(I) Cuscuta forms specialized structures called haustoria to draw nutrition from host plants.
(II) Azotobacter lives in the roots of legumes and converts gaseous nitrogen into usable form.
(III) Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association of mycelium of a fungus with an algae.
(IV) Insectivorous plants can't synthesize their own food and obtain nutrition from insects.
(V) Indian pipe and coral roots are parasitic plants.
(VI) Fungi releases digestive juices that converts dead and decaying matter into simpler form.

26. The diagram represents the respiratory structure in insects. Identify A, B & C –

(1) A – Tracheal tube, B – Spiracle, C – Air sac
(2) A – Spiracle, B – Tracheal tube, C – Air sac
(3) A – Air sac, B – Tracheal tube, C – Spiracle
(4) A – Tracheal tube, B – Air sac, C – Spiracle

27. A part of human digestive system is shown below. 'P' secretes enzyme which helps in digestion of starch. 'Q' produces a juice which helps in fat digestion. Identify the correct labelled diagram.

28. Forests are called green lungs. They help in maintaining the balance of O₂ and CO₂ in the atmosphere with the help of processes A & B.

Select the option that are not correct regarding A & B.

(1) A is the process that takes place in green plants to synthesize their own food.
(2) Process B provides energy to perform different activities.
(3) Process B is performed by almost all the living organisms.
(4) Plants are called producers because of the process B.

29. Match the following and choose the correctly matched option.

(1) A-i-P, B-iii-S, C-iv-Q, D-ii-R
(2) A-iii-P, B-i-Q, C-ii-R, D-iv-S
(3) A-i-R, B-iii-Q, C-ii-S, D-iv-P
(4) A-iii-P, B-i-Q, C-iv-S, D-ii-R

30. Choose the incorrect statement from the given options.

(1) Part labeled 'C' is not true stomach.
(2) Part labeled 'A' is the region where complete digestion occur.
(3) Part labeled 'D' is the region where cud is formed.
(4) Part labeled 'B' is Abomasum

31. All organisms need food for energy. But how does an organism's body actually get energy out of food? Read the following passage to answer.
Food supplies an organism with many, energy-rich molecules. These molecules after digestion are taken in by the organism's cells. Inside cells, the molecules from food are broken down to release energy that cells can use. This energy powers cell processes that allow the entire organism to grow and live.
A. Molecules from food can provide energy to the cells.
B. Breakdown of molecules release energy.
C. Cells use energy to promote the organism's growth.
D. Conversion of small food molecules to large food molecules releases energy.
Which of the above statements are true?

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A, B and C

32. In a survey of a village, some doctors found out that the children living there have very thin arm & legs and a pot belly. From the following options, choose the irrelevant statements with reference to the condition of the children.

(1) Such children can play and prepare for state level competitions.
(2) Such children do not even get a roti to eat in the whole day.
(3) Such children if provided with proper food would grow & develop properly.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

33. From the given pie chart it could be inferred that bread, cereals and potatoes occupy the maximum portion of the diet of an individual. These food items are a rich source of _________?

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Fats
(4) Minerals

Section D : Mathematics

34. The following pictograph shows the number of mangoes purchased for a home during first four months of an year. Read the table and answer the question given below :

Find the number of mangoes purchased for a home during January to March is

(1) 60
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 80

35. Seven times a number added to five times the same number gives the result 192. The number is ..........

(1) 12
(2) 96
(3) 32
(4) 16

36. Find the distance covered by an insect in crawling along the edges of top of the rectangular table as shown in the figure.

(1) 220 cm
(2) 200 cm
(3) 280 cm
(4) 240 cm

37. In a magic square each row, column and diagonal have the same sum, then the values of A and B are respectively.

(1) 4, 1
(2) 4, 0
(3) 1, 1
(4) 0, 4

38. 4(x – 3) – 2(x + 3) = 6(x + 5) – 8, then the value of x is

(1) 10
(2) –12
(3) –10
(4) 44

39. If ℓ || m then find the value of x in the following figure.

(1) 43°
(2) 72°
(3) 115°
(4) 66°

40. Absolute value of 2 × 3 – 4 × 5 is

(1) 10
(2) –14
(3) 14
(4) –11

41. The value of 1 + 1 / [2 + 1 / (3 + 1/4)] is

(1) 4/29
(2) 5/39
(3) 43/4
(4) 43/30

42. The perimeter of the right angled isosceles triangle is (8 + 4√2) cm, then area of triangle is

(1) 8 cm²
(2) 16 cm²
(3) 2√2 cm²
(4) 32√2 cm²

43. The sale of electric bulbs on different days of a month is shown below and answer the following question.

Find the total number of electric bulbs sold in all the months.

(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 20
(4) 20

44. What is the value of the expression [14/3 (2 3/7 – 3 1/6 + 1 2/3)] ?

(1) 1 1/2
(2) 2 1/2
(3) 3 1/2
(4) 4 1/3

45. On dividing Rs. 7200 among A, B and C in the ratio 1/3 : 1/6 : 1/4 then B's share is

(1) Rs. 1600
(2) Rs. 2400
(3) Rs. 3200
(4) Rs. 1200

46. Which is smaller among 6/–7 and –5/9

(1) –5/9
(2) 6/–7
(3) both are equal
(4) None of these

47. In the given figure, if AB || CD and BC || ED then the value of x is

(1) 75°
(2) 125°
(3) 105°
(4) 85°

48. 7 steps to the left of 4 on number line gives

(1) 3
(2) 11
(3) –11
(4) –3

49. The speed of a train is 75 1/3 km/hr. What is the distance travelled by train in 1 3/5 hours?

(1) 12 8/15 km
(2) 1200 8/15 km
(3) 120 8/15 km
(4) 47 1/2

50. The difference of one fifth of a number and 4 is 3. Which of the following can be the number ?

(1) 7
(2) 35
(3) 21
(4) 14

51. A pair of lines which do not intersect at any point are called __________ lines.

(1) Perpendicular
(2) Parallel
(3) Concurrent
(4) Intersecting

52. Which number to be added to 2, 3, 5 and 7 to be in proportion?

(1) 5
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

53. Simplify the following expression: [(–51x⁵y¹² – 34x¹²y⁵) / (–17x⁵y⁵)] × [(120x⁷y⁸ / 40x⁴y³) ÷ (54x²y⁴ / 9xy)]

(1) –[(3y⁶ + 2x⁶) / 1] × (x²y²)
(2) [(3y⁷ + 2x⁷) / 2] × (x²y²)
(3) [(3y⁶ + 2x⁶) / 3] × (x²y²)
(4) –[(3y⁷ + 2x⁷) / 2] × (x²y²)

54. Find the cost of polishing a circular table top of diameter 1.6 m, if the rate of polishing is Rs. 15 per m². (Take π = 3.14)

(1) Rs. 14.25
(2) Rs. 100
(3) Rs. 30.14
(4) Rs. 50.14

55. If x + 1/x = 11, then the value of x – 1/x is = ______.

(1) √117
(2) √110
(3) √119
(4) 10

56. In the figure given below, O is the centre of the circle and OPQR is a rectangle. A is a point on PO such that AO = 1/3 PO and B is the mid point of OR. Find the area of the shaded region, if PA = 8 cm and BR = 4 cm. (Use π = 3.14)

(1) 132.68 cm²
(2) 121.11 cm²
(3) 108.56 cm²
(4) 146.24 cm²

57. Factors of (5x⁴ – 20y⁴) is

(1) 5
(2) x² – 2y²
(3) x² + 2y²
(4) All of these

58. The decimals 0.919, 9.19, 0.0919, 91.96 and 0.9919 can be arranged in descending order as

(1) 91.96 > 0.9919 > 0.0919 > 9.19 > 0.919
(2) 91.96 > 9.19 > 0.9919 > 0.919 > 0.0919
(3) 91.96 > 0.9919 > 9.19 > 0.0919 > 0.919
(4) 91.96 > 9.19 > 0.919 > 0.0919 > 0.9919

Section E : Mental Ability

59. Answer the given question based on the following English alphabet: A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
Which letter is 5^th to the right of letter P?

(1) V
(2) T
(3) U
(4) K

60. A man is facing North–East. He turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 45° in the anti clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now ?

(1) North
(2) South–West
(3) West
(4) East

61. In a certain code, "BAGGINS" is written as "#$ααφ3%@". How is AGING written in that code?

(1) $αφ3%#
(2) $αφ3%α
(3) $@φ3%#
(4) $αφ3#@

62. Regina wants to go to eat pizza in Dominos. She starts from Woodland shop which is in the East and comes to the crossing. The pathway to her Left ends in PVR cinemas, straight ahead is the MacDonald's. In which direction is the Dominos?

(1) East
(2) North
(3) South
(4) West

63. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives 3C, 6F, 10J, 15O, ?

(1) 21T
(2) 20T
(3) 21U
(4) 20S

64. If the following four words are arranged in alphabetical order, which word will come in third?

(1) Peacock
(2) Pencil
(3) Pear
(4) Past

65. If the code for HORSE is SLIHV, what is the code for DONKEY in the same code language?

(1) WLPMVB
(2) WLMPVB
(3) WLPMBV
(4) WLMPBV

66. Donald ranks 23^rd from the bottom and 13^th from the top in a class. How many students are there in the class?

(1) 34
(2) 35
(3) 32
(4) 36

67. In the following question, you are given a fig. (X) followed by four alternative figures such that one of the answer figures is embedded in fig. (X). Trace out the alternative figure which is embedded in fig. (X) as its part.

68. A person starts walking towards East direction. He then turned right, then again turn right and finally turned left. In which direction he is walking now?

(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West

69. Arrange the given words in the alphabetical order and tick the one that comes at the second place.

(1) Batting
(2) Banking
(3) Backing
(4) Banishing

70. Choose the water image of the following combination.
SARVATR75

71. Choose the mirror image of the following figure (X).

72. Complete the following series 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, ?, ?

(1) 14, 196
(2) 15, 225
(3) 15, 255
(4) 225, 15

73. Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers would make the given equation correct? 6 × 4 + 2 = 16

(1) + and ×, 2 and 4
(2) + and ×, 2 and 6
(3) + and ×, 4 and 6
(4) None of these

74. Choose the venn-diagram which best illustrates the three given classes : Yak, Zebra, Deer.

75. Find the mirror image of 'MOWGLI'.

76. If 'X' stands for add, 'Y' stands for subtract and 'Z' stands for multiply, then what is the value of given equation.
(7 Z 3) Y 6 X 5 = ?

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

77. Find the water image of the given figure.

78. Two different positions of the same dice are shown. Find the number on the face opposite to the face showing '2'.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

79. In a row of girls Aditi is 10^th from right and 18^th from left. How many girls are there in the row?

(1) 27
(2) 25
(3) 28
(4) 29

80. Which one of the following correctly represents the relation among Mango, fruit and vegetables?

Allen TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test Exam Pattern 2026-27

The TALLENTEX Class 7 exam pattern includes questions from Science, Mathematics and Mental Ability. The offline mock test contains 70 questions, while the online exam pattern includes 100 questions. Each correct answer carries four marks, and one mark is deducted for each incorrect answer.

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex​ Sample Paper 2026-27

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex PYQs for Class 5 to 10 PDF

👉 Also Check: Allen TALLENTEX Syllabus 2026-27

Benefits of Solving ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test

Practising the TALLENTEX Class 7 Mock Test PDF helps students become familiar with the question format and difficulty level. It also helps them revise important concepts and improve their problem-solving skills.

By solving mock tests regularly, students can work on their accuracy, identify topics that need more attention and learn how to complete the paper within two hours. They can also use the answer key to check their responses and evaluate their performance.