Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

The Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27 helps students practise important questions and prepare for the upcoming TALLENTEX examination. Students can use these mock tests to understand the exam pattern, improve their speed and check their preparation level. The mock test includes questions from Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Mental Ability, based on the prescribed syllabus.

Students can download the Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test PDF and practise exam-style questions before appearing for the examination. Regular practice also helps students identify weak topics and improve their time management skills.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27: Overview

The Allen TALLENTEX examination is a scholarship and talent assessment exam conducted by ALLEN Career Institute. The Class 8 mock test follows the exam pattern and includes multiple-choice questions with four options. Students can check the important exam details below.

Particulars	Details
Exam Name	Allen TALLENTEX 2026-27
Conducting Body	Allen Career Institute
Class	Class 8
Exam Type	Scholarship and Talent Assessment
Mock Test Mode	Offline Practice Paper
Total Questions	80
Maximum Marks	320
Exam Duration	2 Hours
Question Type	Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Subjects	Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Mental Ability
Marking Scheme	+4 for correct answer, -1 for incorrect answer
Medium	English
Mock Test Availability	PDF

Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

Students preparing for the examination can download the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF to practise important questions. The practice paper contains 80 MCQs covering all five subjects. Students should solve the complete paper within the given time to assess their preparation. Students can access the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test PDF through the link provided below.

👉 Download PDF: Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27

Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test 2026-27

Physics | Section A | Single Correct Answer Type

Q1. Several small pieces of wax are fixed on a metal rod as shown in the figure below. When a candle flame is brought in contact with one end of the rod, the wax pieces begin to fall one by one. The method of heat transfer involved here is:

(1) Conduction
(2) Convection
(3) Radiation
(4) None of these

Q2. A container is filled with water. Choose the correct option showing the relation between the pressures at points A, B, C and D. Points B and C are at the same horizontal level.

(1) P_A = P_B = P_C = P_D
(2) P_A < P_B = P_C < P_D
(3) P_D < P_B = P_C < P_A
(4) P_A = P_B < P_C = P_D

Q3. The picture shows Raj and his friends playing with a string-telephone. Rita is speaking. Raj and Ravi are trying to listen. Which of them can hear her speak clearly?

(1) Both of them can hear equally clearly.
(2) Neither of them can hear.
(3) Only Ravi can hear clearly.
(4) Only Raj can hear clearly.

Q4. Two plane mirrors M₁ and M₂ are inclined at an angle of 60°. A ray of light falls on mirror M₁ parallel to mirror M₂. What is the angle of incidence of the ray at mirror M₂?

(1) 60°
(2) 15°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°

Q5. A car is moving along a straight road and its speed changes as it leaves a stop sign. The speedometer readings at different instants and the corresponding positions of the car are shown below.

From the above figure, the motion of the car

(1) covers equal distance in equal interval of time.
(2) covers equal displacement in equal interval of time.
(3) is non-uniform.
(4) is uniform.

Q6. Consider the electric circuit shown below.

Which of the following bulb(s) will glow when switches K₂ and K₃ are closed?

(1) only B₃ and B₄
(2) only B₁, B₃ and B₄
(3) all bulbs
(4) only B₂ and B₃

Q7. Persistence of vision is defined as

(1) the ability of the eye to change the focal length of the eye lens.
(2) the nerve ending which is sensitive to bright light.
(3) the nerve ending which is sensitive to dim light.
(4) the ability of an eye to continue to see an image for a short duration even after the removal of the object.

Q8. Two empty metal cans, one black and one white, are placed outside on a hot day. Both cans are identical in size and left in sunlight for 3 hours. Compared to the white can, the black can would most likely be

(1) cooler, because it absorbs less sunlight.
(2) cooler, because it absorbs more sunlight.
(3) warmer, because it absorbs less sunlight.
(4) warmer, because it absorbs more sunlight.

Q9. The relation between SI and CGS unit of force is

(1) 1 N = 10³ dyne
(2) 1 N = 10^-5 dyne
(3) 1 N = 10⁵ dyne
(4) 1 N = 10^-3 dyne

Q10. Loudness of sound depends on ______________ of sound while the pitch of sound depends on ______________ of sound.

(1) frequency, amplitude
(2) amplitude, frequency
(3) speed, amplitude
(4) speed, frequency

Q11. Vinegar is

(1) Electrolyte
(2) Non-electrolyte
(3) Electrode
(4) None of these

Q12. Sam made some electrical circuits using identical lamps and batteries. Assist Sam to determine which circuit has the smallest current and which circuit has the brightest lamps respectively.

(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) A and B
(4) C and D

Q13. A toy car is placed 50 cm in front of a plane mirror M. If the mirror is now moved 0.50 m away from the toy car, where is the image of the toy car formed from plane mirror?

(1) 100 m away
(2) 0.1 cm away
(3) 100 cm away
(4) 0.1 m away

Q14. If mass of an object doubles, the friction force acting on it –

(1) gets half
(2) becomes 1/4
(3) doubles
(4) remains same

Q15. Time period of simple pendulum is 1.2 seconds. What is the time taken by the pendulum to complete 30 oscillations?

(1) 25 s
(2) 30 s
(3) 36 s
(4) 40 s

Chemistry | Section B | Single Correct Answer Type

Q16. This is a pie chart about energy sources in country X in the year 2015. Examine it and answer the questions given alongside.

Which fossil fuel that is used maximum by country X but is not a clean fuel?

(1) Coal
(2) Petroleum
(3) Natural gas
(4) Nuclear electricity

Q17. Chetan, a class 8 student conducted the following experiment and recorded the observations in the given table.

Observation	Does balloon explode?		Is ignition temperature of balloon reached?
Observation	Fig. 1	Fig. 2	Fig. 1	Fig. 2
I.	Yes	No	No	Yes
II.	No	Yes	Yes	Yes
III.	Yes	No	Yes	No

The correct observation and inference drawn are:

(1) I ; balloon has a higher ignition temperature than water, hence it explodes.
(2) III ; water increases the melting point of balloon.
(3) II ; water in the balloon absorbs the heat.
(4) III ; water conducts the heat away from the balloon.

Q18. Label the different zones of a candle flame.

(1) A = Outer zone of complete combustion
B = Luminous zone of complete combustion
C = Inner dark zone of unburnt wax vapour
(2) A = Outer zone of complete combustion
B = Luminous zone of partial combustion
C = Inner dark zone of unburnt wax vapours
(3) A = Outer zone of unburnt wax vapours
B = Luminous zone of complete combustion
C = Inner dark zone of partial combustion
(4) A = Outer zone of partial combustion
B = Luminous zone of partial combustion
C = Inner dark zone of complete combustion

Q19. 1 kg of fuel was completely burnt. The heat produced was measured to be 7000 kJ. What will be the heat produced from 5000 g of fuel?

(1) 35000000 kJ
(2) 35000 kJ
(3) 350 kJ
(4) 35 kJ

Q20. A change in which the original substance can be obtained back by change of condition is called

(1) Reversible change
(2) Physical change
(3) Chemical change
(4) Both (1) & (2)

Q21. Crude oil and Natural gas are often found together with water as large deposits deep inside the earth's crust as shown in the diagram given below. Identify X, Y and Z.

	X	Y	Z
(1)	Crude oil	Water	Natural gas
(2)	Water	Natural gas	Crude oil
(3)	Water	Crude oil	Natural gas
(4)	Natural gas	Water	Crude oil

Q22. Expansion on heating & contraction on cooling of metal is a

(1) Chemical change
(2) Physical change
(3) Irreversible change
(4) None of these

Q23. In the deposits of petroleum and natural gas, layers containing petroleum and natural gas are always above water. Why is it so?

(1) Petroleum and natural gas are heavier than water and do not mix with water.
(2) Petroleum is heavier than water but natural gas is lighter than water.
(3) Petroleum and natural gas are lighter than water and do not mix with water.
(4) Petroleum is lighter than water but natural gas is heavier than water.

Q24. Identify X, Y & Z from the clues given below.
X - I am the fuel with highest calorific value. I am used in the production of urea. I am also produced from marsh gas.
Y - I am a type of combustion which evolves heat, light and sound.
Z - I am best fire extinguisher for electrical equipments.

	X	Y	Z
(1)	H₂ gas	Spontaneous	Water
(2)	H₂ gas	Explosion	CO₂ gas
(3)	CO₂ gas	Explosion	H₂ gas
(4)	H₂ gas	Rapid	NH₃ gas

Q25. In India, the Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA) advises people how to save petrol/diesel while driving. Which of the following is NOT their advice to save fuel?

(1) Drive at slow speed as far as possible.
(2) Switch off the engine at traffic lights.
(3) Ensure correct tyre pressure.
(4) Ensure regular maintenance of the vehicle.

Q26. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) Inflammable substances have high ignition temperature.
(2) In rapid combustion, a material itself suddenly bursts into flame.
(3) The substance which vaporizes during burning gives flame.
(4) Charcoal is the only substance which gives flame as it vaporizes on burning.

Q27. Adding salt to water makes it salty. Which of the following statement is true regarding this change?

(1) It is a chemical change because a new substance is formed.
(2) It is a physical change because the original substance can be recovered.
(3) It is a chemical change because there is exchange of heat.
(4) It is a chemical change because there is a slight change in colour.

Q28. Four changes are given below. Which of these represents a chemical change?

(1) A matchstick is lit, creating a yellow-orange flame.
(2) A small piece of ice melts, changing from a solid to a liquid.
(3) A ball of clay sinks in water and floats when reshaped.
(4) A pot of water is heated to boiling and evaporation occurs.

Q29. Which of the following are ways to conserve water?

(i) Take short showers instead of tub baths.
(ii) Construction of Dams to store rain water.
(iii) Wastage of drinking water to water the plants.
(iv) Turn on the tap while brushing teeth.

(1) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) (i) & (iv)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (iii) & (iv)

Q30. Which of the following is correct about the ways in which water can be affected by humans?

(1) Chemicals applied by farmers lower the level of pollution in drinking water.
(2) Drinking water can become polluted from unsuspected sources.
(3) Human activities do not affect groundwater.
(4) Toxic waste is safe if buried below the level of the basements of nearby homes.

Biology | Section C | Single Correct Answer Type

Q31. Which type of bacteria are represented by P, Q, R & S?

(1) P–Coccus, Q–Bacillus, R–Vibrio, S–Spirillum
(2) P–Bacillus, Q–Coccus, R–Spirillum, S–Vibrio
(3) P–Bacillus, Q–Vibrio, R–Coccus, S–Spirillum
(4) P–Bacillus, Q–Spirillum, R–Vibrio, S–Coccus

Q32. What will be the effect of large amount of moisture present in food grains during storage?

(1) The organism present in the food grains will not be able to grow.
(2) The enzymes present in food grains may dissolve.
(3) The food grains can be stored for a long time.
(4) It will increase the rate of decay of food materials.

Q33. Match the column–I with column–II & select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I		Column II
(a)	Artery	(i)	Haemoglobin
(b)	Vein	(ii)	Carries mainly oxygenated blood
(c)	RBC	(iii)	Exchange of materials
(d)	Capillaries	(iv)	Carries mainly deoxygenated blood

(1) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(2) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i)
(3) a – (ii), b – (iv), c – (i), d – (iii)
(4) a – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)

Q34. When Meena's class visited a farm to observe the process of agriculture, she saw some labourers removing some plants from the main crop in the field. Her teacher has explained about weeding in the class. She was surprised why they are removing the plants from the field. The best possible reason would be ______.

Statement 1 : They wanted to prevent overcrowding of plants in the fields.
Statement 2 : Overcrowding makes the plants grow unhealthy as they do not get enough sunlight, water and nutrients.

(1) Only statement 1 is correct
(2) Both statements are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

Q35. The respiratory and circulatory systems provide the tissues of your body with the oxygen they need to function. At which location is the oxygen used to make energy?

(1) Cells
(2) Capillaries
(3) Heart
(4) Lungs

Q36. Few roles of forests are listed below. Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) They regulate earth's temperature.
(2) They increase soil erosion by water and wind.
(3) They save hill slopes from landslides.
(4) They control noise pollution.

Q37. Quinine, a useful medicine for malaria is obtained from ______________.

(1) pine tree
(2) cinchona tree
(3) neem tree
(4) eucalyptus tree

Q38. Mohan is a farmer of a village of Haryana. He adopts the traditional way of farming. Before sowing seeds, he puts gram seeds in vessels and pours some water on them. After few minutes some seeds start floating on the top. Which seeds should be selected by Mohan for sowing and why?

(1) Mohan should select those seeds which sink because damaged seeds become hollow and lighter, therefore they float on top.
(2) Mohan should select both the seeds which sink and which float because all of them are healthy.
(3) Mohan should select seeds which float because healthy seeds are hollow, so they float on top.
(4) Mohan should select seeds which float because damaged seeds sink due to infection.

Q39. Nitrogen is an essential element for all living organisms because it is a principal component of proteins and nucleic acids. The circulation of nitrogen through the living and non-living components of biosphere is called nitrogen cycle. Identify the processes P, Q and the organisms A, B & C involved in these processes.

(1) P – Nitrification, Q – Denitrification, A – Nitrobacter, B – Nitrosomonas, C – Pseudomonas
(2) P – Nitrification, Q – Denitrification, A – Nitrosomonas, B – Nitrobacter, C – Pseudomonas
(3) P – Denitrification, Q – Nitrification, A – Nitrosomonas, B – Nitrobacter, C – Pseudomonas
(4) P – Nitrification, Q – Denitrification, A – Nitrosomonas, B – Pseudomonas, C – Nitrobacter

Q40. Select the incorrect match.

(i) Pachmarhi Biosphere reserve – Madhya Pradesh.
(ii) Periyar National park – West Bengal.
(iii) Endemic flora of pachmarhi biosphere reserve – wild mango and neem.
(iv) Endemic fauna of pachmarhi biosphere reserve – Bison and Indian giant squirrel.

(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (i), (iii) only
(3) (ii) & (iv) only
(4) (ii), (iii) only

Q41. Observe the following Venn diagram and mark the correct option.

(1) P : Satpura national park, Q : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Bori sanctuary
(2) P : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve, Q : Satpura national park, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Bori sanctuary
(3) P : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve, Q : Satpura national park, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Simlipal Biosphere Reserve
(4) P : Bori sanctuary, Q : Periyar national park, R : Pachmarhi sanctuary, S : Pachmarhi biosphere reserve

Q42. If a plant did not get enough water, the likely result would be wilting and ______.

(1) an increase in the size of the leaves.
(2) an increase in the length of the stem.
(3) a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.
(4) a reduction in the rate of CO₂ production.

Q43. A flower is the reproductive organ of a plant. A typical flower has a stalk called as pedicel. The uppermost part of pedicel is thalamus on which different parts of flower are arranged in concentric rings. Given below is a flow chart showing different whorls of a complete flower-

Identify the missing parts from the flow chart –

(1) B – Petal, C – Anther, D – Filament, F – Ovary
(2) A – Sepal, C – Anther, F – Ovary, G – Style
(3) A – Sepal, C – Filament, D – Anther, F – Style
(4) B – Petal, C – Anther, D – Filament, G – Ovary

Q44. Observe the given reproductive part of a flower and identify the labelled part-

(1) a – stigma, b – style, c – ovary, d – ovule
(2) a – style, b – ovary, c – ovule, d – stigma
(3) a – style, b – ovule, c – ovary, d – stigma
(4) a – style, b – ovary, c – stigma, d – ovule

Q45. Which of the following reproduces only inside a host cell?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Amoeba
(4) Fungus

Mathematics | Section D | Single Correct Answer Type

Q46. Which of the following shows the maximum rise in temperature?

(1) 23° to 32°
(2) –10° to +1°
(3) –18° to –11°
(4) –5° to +5°

Q47. An art teacher had 2/3 gallon of paint to pour into containers. If he poured 1/8 gallon of paint into each container until he ran out of paint, how many containers had paint in them, including the one that was partially filled?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

Q48. Which of the following cannot be true for a polyhedron?

(1) V = 6, F = 4, E = 8
(2) V = 4, F = 4, E = 6
(3) V = 4, F = 4, E = 4
(4) V = 8, F = 6, E = 12

Q49. Simplify : (–6/7 × 28/18) + (–11/13 × 65/22) – (–3/29 ÷ 9/87)

(1) Additive inverse of 17/6
(2) Multiplicative inverse of –6/17
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) 17/6

Q50. Bert draw an angle that has the characteristics listed below.

• It has a measure greater than 88.5°.
• It is an obtuse angle.

Which of the following could be the angle Bert drew?

(1) 92.5°
(2) 90°
(3) 89.5°
(4) 88°

Q51. Simplify : (3·2ⁿ – 4·2ⁿ) / (2ⁿ – 2^n–1) + {a^p–q / ∛(a^2–pq) × a^–2(p–q)}ⁿ

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) 2

Q52. The area of the triangle given is 2/5 ft². What is the length of hypotenuse?

(1) 2/3 ft
(2) 2√106 / 15 ft
(3) 2 ft
(4) √106 / 15 ft

Q53. Find the number of faces of an octagonal pyramid.

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 9

Q54. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus with ∠ABC = 56°. Determine ∠ACD.

(1) 31°
(2) 45°
(3) 62°
(4) 90°

Q55. The least number which must be subtracted from 18265 to make it a perfect square is

(1) 20
(2) 30
(3) 40
(4) 50

Q56. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 15. If the number formed by reversing the digits is less than the original number by 27, find the original number.

(1) 39
(2) 69
(3) 96
(4) 93

Q57. This number line shows different places that Evan can visit along a 1-kilometer trail from the school to Williard Pond. (Marking marked at equal intervals)

Evan walked from the school to the tire swing and then from the tire swing to the blueberry patch. What is the total distance Evan walked (in km)?

(1) 0.6
(2) 5/10
(3) 7/10
(4) 0.9

Q58. Three numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. The sum of their cubes is 33957. Find the numbers.

(1) 7, 14, 21
(2) 8, 16, 24
(3) 14, 21, 28
(4) 16, 24, 32

Q59. Solve for x : (x + 3) / (x + 7) = 9/11

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 15
(4) 10

Q60. If the length and area of a rectangle are 1.68 cm and 3.4944 cm² respectively, find the area of the circle whose radius is equal to the breadth of the above mentioned rectangle. (Take π = 3.14)

(1) 10.786 cm²
(2) 15.065 cm²
(3) 13.585 cm²
(4) 11.785 cm²

Mental Ability | Section E | Single Correct Answer Type

Q61. If + means ÷, – means ×, ÷ means – and × means +, then 6 + 2 – 4 ÷ 2 × 5 = ?

(1) 30
(2) –2
(3) 15
(4) 10

Q62. Sachin walks 12 km towards East and turns to his right and walks 8 km. Then he again took right turn and walks 6 km. In which direction is Sachin going at the end?

(1) East
(2) West
(3) North
(4) South

Q63. If ARUNI is written as '37542' and LEBRAM is written as '168739' then how will 'BALMANI' be written in that language?

(1) 8319432
(2) 8319342
(3) 8319724
(4) None of the above

Q64. Ritika was playing hide and seek with her sister Rima. Ritika went 20 meters towards her left then she turned right and ran for 15 meters to find her sister. If she found her sister then how far was Rima from Ritika initially?

(1) 25 meters
(2) 30 meters
(3) 40 meters
(4) 42 meters

Q65. Find the next term in the given series.

66, 66, 66, 11, 11/4, ?

(1) 11/20
(2) 11/21
(3) 2
(4) 1/2

Q66. Find the missing number from the following options.

7	49	343
11	121	?
20	400	8000

(1) 1200
(2) 1331
(3) 1444
(4) 668

Q67. Study the information given in the diagram and answer the questions given below.

(i) Rectangle represents females.
(ii) Triangle represents uneducated person.
(iii) Circle represents rural.
(iv) Square represents private servants.

In different regions in the diagram some numbers are indicated which correspond to the persons. How many persons are uneducated female?

(1) 4
(2) 11
(3) 16
(4) 13

Q68. Pointing to Raju, Smita said "His Mother's Brother is the Father of my Son Aashu" How is Raju related to Smita?

(1) Brother in law
(2) Nephew
(3) Uncle
(4) Aunt

Q69. In a certain code language 'CHAT' is written as SUZBGIBD. How will 'APT' be coded in that language?

(1) SUOBZQ
(2) SUOZQB
(3) SUOQBZ
(4) SUOQZB

Q70. Choose the correct mirror image of the following question figure.

Image for Q70 (Question Figure + Options 1–4)

Q71. Find the next term in the given series. 8, 14, 30, 58, 118, 234, ?

(1) 471
(2) 476
(3) 470
(4) 488

Q72. Find the water image of the given figure (X).

Q73. In the following question, choose the alternative figure in which the question figure (X) is embedded.

Q74. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the five problem figures.

Q75. From the following figures of dice, find which letter will come in place of '?'.

(1) D
(2) B
(3) E
(4) C

Q76. How many rectangles are there in the following figure?

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10

Q77. Choose the correct choice representing the Venn diagram.

(1) Mango, Grass, Salt
(2) Hen, Dog, Cat
(4) Illiterate people, unemployed, poor people

Q78. The following question is based on the information given below:

1. All the faces of a big cube are painted with blue colour.
2. The cube is cut into 64 small and equal size cubes.

How many small cubes are there whose at least two faces are coloured?

(1) 28
(2) 32
(3) 24
(4) 30

Q79. Fifty students were there in tenth class who took the mental ability test. Six of the students did not qualify, out of the remaining Ramesh ranked 14^th from the last. What was his rank from top?

(1) 32^nd
(2) 30^th
(3) 31^st
(4) None of above

Q80. A's son B is married with C, whose sister D is married to E, the brother of B. How is D related to A?

(1) Sister
(2) Daughter-in-law
(3) Sister-in-law
(4) Cousin

Allen TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test Exam Pattern 2026-27

The TALLENTEX Class 8 exam pattern includes questions from Science, Mathematics and Mental Ability. The offline mock test contains 80 questions, while the online exam pattern includes 100 questions. Each correct answer carries four marks, and one mark is deducted for each incorrect answer.

Subject	Offline Questions	Online Questions
Physics	15	19
Chemistry	15	18
Biology	15	19
Mathematics	15	19
Mental Ability (IQ)	20	25
Total	80	100
Maximum Marks	320	400

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex Sample Paper 2026-27

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex PYQs for Class 5 to 10 PDF

👉 Also Check: Allen TALLENTEX Syllabus 2026-27

Benefits of Solving ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test

Practising the TALLENTEX Class 8 Mock Test PDF helps students become familiar with the question format and difficulty level. It also helps them revise important concepts and improve their problem-solving skills.

By solving mock tests regularly, students can work on their accuracy, identify topics that need more attention and learn how to complete the paper within two hours. They can also use the answer key to check their responses and evaluate their performance.

Choose SelfStudys as a preferred source on Google.