ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 PDF Download

The ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 helps students prepare for the Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE). In this post, we’ve provided the ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with an answer key and detailed solutions. Students can download these PDFs to practise important questions and prepare for the ANTHE 2026 examination.

Students can practise important questions based on the ANTHE 2026 syllabus and exam pattern. The mock test covers Science, Mathematics, and Mental Ability. It helps students understand the question format, improve accuracy, and manage their time during the exam.

Students can download the ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with a separate answer key and detailed solutions to check their performance.

ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026: Overview

In this post, we've provided the ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with the answer key and detailed solutions. Students can check the complete mock test details in the table below.

Download ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 PDF

Students preparing for ANTHE 2026 can download the Class 6 mock test PDF from the below. The practice paper includes questions from Science, Mathematics, and Mental Ability based on the ANTHE exam pattern.

👉 PDF Download: ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026 with Solution

ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026

Time: 1 Hour | Maximum Marks: 80 | Total Questions: 40

Science

1. What does the difference in temperature between two bodies indicate?

(1) Comparison of mass of the bodies
(2) Comparison of speed of the bodies
(3) Comparison of hotness of the bodies
(4) Comparison of length of the bodies

2. The temperature difference indicated between two consecutive bigger marks of a thermometer is 5 °C and the number of small divisions between these two marks is 10. The smallest value that this thermometer can read is

(1) 0.1 °C
(2) 0.5 °C
(3) 1 °C
(4) 1.5 °C

3. A piece of wooden stick is placed along the length of a 15 cm scale as shown in the figure. The length of the wooden stick is

(1) 3 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 7 cm
(4) 10 cm

4. Three magnets are arranged on a table in the form of a shape as shown in the figure. The polarity at the ends 1, 3, and 4 of the magnets is respectively

(1) North, North and South
(2) South, South and North
(3) North, South and North
(4) South, North and North

5. A bar magnet as shown in the figure is completely dipped in a heap of iron filings. The correct order for the amount of iron filings sticking at positions A, B and C is

(1) A > B > C
(2) A = B = C
(3) C > B > A
(4) A = C > B

6. Which of the following is a non-magnetic material?

(1) Iron
(2) Nickel
(3) Cobalt
(4) Plastic

7. If 1 cm length is divided into 10 equal parts then the length of one of these smaller parts is

(1) 1 millimetre
(2) 1 inch
(3) 1 kilometre
(4) 1 metre

8. ORS stands for

(1) Original rehydration solution
(2) Oral regular solution
(3) Oral rehydration solution
(4) Oral rehydration suspension

9. Same amount of water is kept in four different pots of same material at same place as depicted in the figures. The evaporation will be fastest in

(1) d
(2) c
(3) b
(4) a

10. Threshers are used to separate

(1) Grains from the stalks and husk
(2) Grains from stones
(3) Grains from mud
(4) Stone and husk from rice

11. Which of the following are correctly arranged on the basis of hardness?

(1) Rubber < Sponge < Iron
(2) Iron < Wood < Rubber
(3) Sponge < Rubber < Iron
(4) Sponge < Iron < Rubber

12. Consider the following table:

Now, identify 'A', 'B' and 'C' and choose the correct option.

13. Consider the following statements.
Statement-I: Churning is used to separate butter from curd.
Statement-II: Iron is a magnetic substance.
Now, choose the correct option.

(1) Only statement-I is correct
(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

14. Which of the following are the examples of evaporation and correct about it?
(a) Drying of wet clothes
(b) Formation of dew
(c) Drying of mopped floor
(d) Drying of sweat on our body
(e) Evaporation causes cooling

(1) Only (a) & (b)
(2) Only (b), (c) & (e)
(3) (a), (c), (d) & (e)
(4) (b), (c), (d) & (e)

15. The other name of Hibiscus is

(1) Gudhal
(2) Tulsi
(3) Neem
(4) Mango

16. Which of the following plants does not show parallel venation?

(1) Common grass
(2) Banana
(3) Mustard
(4) Lemongrass

17. A monocot seed has

(1) Two cotyledons
(2) One cotyledon
(3) Three cotyledons
(4) Four cotyledons

18. Select the incorrect match.

19. Vitamin-A

(a) Helps to keep our eyes and skin healthy.
(b) Deficiency can cause anaemia.
Select the correct option.

(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) Only (b) is correct
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect

20. Statement-I: Roughage does not provide any nutrients to our body.
Statement-II: Ghee is the main source of roughage.
Consider the above given statements and choose the correct option.

(1) Only statement-I is correct
(2) Only statement-II is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

21. The above given type of seed is found in

(1) Maize
(2) Wheat
(3) Lemongrass
(4) Chickpea

Mathematics

22. Digit sum of product of smallest two digit prime number and largest two digit composite number is

(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18

23. Which of the following is a square number?

(1) 525
(2) 625
(3) 725
(4) 825

24. Which of the following cannot be the sum of degree measure of an acute angle and an obtuse angle?

(1) 170°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) 100°

25. Weight (in kg) of students of class VI are given below.
30, 31, 32, 30, 29, 24, 35, 29, 27, 28, 26, 29, 36
Number of students whose weight is more than 30 kg is

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

26. Common factor of 187, 323 and 629 is

(1) 37
(2) 19
(3) 17
(4) 3

27. The bar graph shows number of students present in different classes on a particular date.

The difference of maximum and minimum number of students present is multiplied by 2 and number of students present in class II is added to the result. The final value obtained is

(1) 120
(2) 70
(3) 30
(4) 100

28. Which of the following are co-prime?

(1) 7 and 35
(2) 201 and 27
(3) 143 and 343
(4) 5 and 500

29. Digit sum of the largest 5 digit even Palindromic number is

(1) 43
(2) 50
(3) 44
(4) 30

30. As shown in the figure, which of the following is largest angle?

(1) ∠AOF
(2) Reflex ∠AOF
(3) ∠AOD
(4) ∠AOE

31. The value of (21 + 23 + .... + 39) is

(1) 115
(2) 300
(3) 225
(4) 215

32. Consider the statements.
Statement 1: Smallest number that has exactly three different prime factor is 30.
Statement 2: 48 and 60 are co-prime numbers.
Statement 3: There are 2 pairs of twin primes between 10 and 30.
Which of the following is true?

(1) Statement 1 is correct
(2) Statement 2 is correct
(3) Both statements 2 and 3 are correct
(4) Statement 3 is incorrect

Mental Ability

33. Find the next term of the given series.
18, 54, 90, 126, ?

(1) 162
(2) 152
(3) 168
(4) 159

34. Complete the given series.
AGM, DHO, GJR, JMV, ?

(1) MQB
(2) MQA
(3) QMA
(4) NQA

35. If 'National flower' is related to 'Lotus' in the same way 'National animal' is related to

(1) Dog
(2) Leopard
(3) Lion
(4) Tiger

36. Rohit walks 5 m towards west, then turns right and walks 7 m, then turns left and walks 10 m. In which direction is he walking now?

(1) North
(2) South
(3) West
(4) East

37. Pointing towards a boy Rahul said, he is the brother of the only daughter of my mother's husband. How is boy related to Rahul?

(1) Father
(2) Brother
(3) Cousin
(4) Sister

38. If CAT is coded as 24 and MAD is coded as 18, then ADD is coded as

(1) 9
(2) 19
(3) 18
(4) 29

39. Find the missing number.

(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 18

40. Count the total number of triangles.

(1) 14
(2) 13
(3) 11
(4) 12

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Sample Paper

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Syllabus 2026

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Previous Year Question Paper

Benefits of Solving ANTHE Class 6 Mock Test 2026

Practising the ANTHE Class 6 mock test helps students become familiar with the examination pattern and types of questions. It also helps them identify weak topics and improve problem-solving skills.

Students should try to complete the entire mock test within 60 minutes. After finishing, they can use the answer key and solutions to review their mistakes and understand the correct methods.