Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

The Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27 helps students prepare for the upcoming TALLENTEX examination. By solving mock tests, students can understand the exam pattern, practise important questions and improve their problem-solving skills. The mock test includes questions from Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Mental Ability to help students revise important concepts.

Students can download the Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test PDF to practise exam-style questions and check their preparation level. Regular practice helps students improve their speed, accuracy and time management skills before the examination.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27: Overview

The Allen TALLENTEX examination is a scholarship and talent assessment exam conducted by ALLEN Career Institute. The Class 6 mock test follows the offline exam pattern and contains 80 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four options, with only one correct answer. Students can check the important exam details below.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

Students preparing for the examination can download the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF to practise important questions. The practice paper contains 80 MCQs covering all five subjects. Students should attempt the complete paper within the two-hour time limit to assess their preparation and improve their exam performance.

Students can access the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test PDF through the link provided below.

👉 Download PDF: Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27

Allen TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test 2026-27

Section A : Physics

1. Which of the following has kinetic energy?

(1) A sleeping boy
(2) A girl watching T.V.
(3) A moving car
(4) A student sitting in class

2. Match the entries of column-I with identical magnitudes in column-II

(1) A-r, B-q, C-p
(2) A-r, B-p, C-q
(3) A-p, B-r, C-q
(4) A-q, B-p, C-r

3. The diagram below shows a bar magnet resting on top of a piece of white paper. The north and south poles of the magnet are labeled N and S. Points A, B, C, and D represent four locations around the magnet. If iron filings were sprinkled evenly across the entire paper circle, at which location would the greatest concentration of iron filings be found after 30 seconds?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

4. A student models moon phases. She holds a foam ball on a stick in front of her body and then stands in front of a light as shown. The student uses herself to represent Earth. She turns her body slowly to represent four different moon phases.

Which numbered diagram represents the student modeling a full moon?

(1) Diagram 1
(2) Diagram 2
(3) Diagram 3
(4) Diagram 4

5. Earth appears to be the only planet that can support life as we know it. Which of the following gives Earth the conditions needed to support life?

(1) the shape of the orbit
(2) the closeness of Mars
(3) the presence of a moon
(4) the distance from the Sun

6. Forces exerted by boy A and boy B are the examples of (a) __________ and (b) ________ respectively.

(1) pull, pull
(2) push, push
(3) pull, push
(4) push, pull

7. When the Earth is directly between the Sun and the Moon, what type of eclipse occurs?

(1) Solar
(2) Lunar
(3) Transit
(4) Inferior conjunction

8. A needle shaped magnet is freely suspended just above a strong bar magnet. North pole of the needle shaped magnet

(1) will point in the direction of geographic north pole of the earth.
(2) will point in the direction of north pole of bar magnet.
(3) will point in the direction of south pole of bar magnet.
(4) will not point in any specific direction.

9. The distance between Bengaluru and Mysore is usually expressed in units of:

(1) Decametre
(2) Metre
(3) Centimetre
(4) Kilometre

10. Statement I : A galaxy is a system of millions of stars, together with gas and dust, held together by gravitational attraction.
Statement II : Andromeda is a type of galaxy.

(1) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(3) Both statements are true.
(4) Both statements are false.

11. Ravi wants to measure the circumference of his water bottle. Which of the following instruments can be used to determine the circumference?

(1) A 15 cm scale and a meter scale
(2) A meter scale
(3) Hand span and meter scale
(4) Thread and meter scale

Section B : Chemistry

12. Nitesh scratched four different materials P, Q, R and S with a piece of glass. He observed that he could make a scratch only on two materials Q and S. What is the reason behind this observation?

(1) Because glass is a transparent material.
(2) Because glass is a softer material than Q and S.
(3) Because glass is a harder material than P and R.
(4) Because glass is a harder material than Q and S.

13. Which one of the following is insoluble in water ?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Sugar
(3) Salt
(4) Sawdust

14. Which of the following options is correct?

(1) Solids do not have a fixed shape.
(2) Chalk is not a matter.
(3) In gases, particles are closely packed.
(4) Liquids can take the shape of the container they are poured into.

15. In how many physical states does water mainly exist ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

16. Complete the correlation and select the correct option.
Coal : Fossil fuel :: Wind : ?

(1) Exhaustible resource
(2) Limited resource
(3) Non-Replenishable resource
(4) Renewable resource

17. The diagram below shows the effect of a river on an area over many years.

Which process caused valley to form?

(1) Condensation
(2) Deposition
(3) Erosion
(4) Evaporation

18. Nazia divided some substances into two groups as shown below.

How did Nazia group the substances ?

(1) Things that are soft and things that are hard.
(2) Things that are natural and things that are not.
(3) Things that absorb water and things that do not.
(4) Things that are opaque and things that are not opaque.

19. __________ is the fertile component in soil.

(1) Gravel
(2) Humus
(3) Moisture
(4) Air

20. Which of the following is a property of gas?

(1) Gases can be compressed easily.
(2) Particles of gases do not move.
(3) Gases fill up the entire space of a container.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

21. I am thick, black liquid. I am non-renewable resource. My products are used to produce heat, light, power and transportation fuels. Who am I?

(1) Kerosene
(2) Diesel
(3) Petroleum
(4) Bitumen

22. Statement-I : Some substances appear lustrous and some appear non-lustrous.
Statement-II : Wood appear lustrous.

(1) Both Statement-I & II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.
(2) Both Statement-I & II are correct and statement-II is not correct explanation of statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-II is correct and statement-I is incorrect.

Section C : Biology

23. Most producers obtain energy primarily from

(1) water
(2) sun
(3) nutrients in the soil
(4) decomposers

24. Select the incorrect statement from the following -

(1) Human body prepares vitamin D in the presence of sunlight.
(2) About 70% of human body weight is that of water.
(3) Vitamin D helps our body to use calcium for bones and teeth.
(4) Vitamins and minerals are required in large quantities while carbohydrates and proteins are required in small quantities.

25. Which of the following is not a part of circulatory system?

(1) Heart
(2) Blood
(3) Blood vessel
(4) Oesophagus

26. Read the given statements carefully and select the incorrect statement.

(1) Snake has two hollow teeth (fangs), through which poison enters the person's body, when it bites.
(2) Most of the birds have their eyes on either side of the head, to focus on two different things at a time.
(3) Life cycle of mosquito does not include larval stage.
(4) Tiger's whiskers are very sensitive to vibrations in air.

27. Rickets is the softening of bones in young children due to deficiency or inadequate metabolism of vitamin D.
This is what some students said about how the body gets the required amount of vitamin D.
Atul : Vitamin D in sunlight is absorbed by the body.
Salim : Vitamin D in food is absorbed by the digestive system.
Dennis : Vitamin D is synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.
Who is correct?

(1) Only Atul
(2) Only Atul and Salim
(3) Only Salim and Dennis
(4) All - Atul, Salim and Dennis

28. Complete the table by selecting correct option.

(1) A-Vitamin-B, B- Scurvy, C-Growth of bones
(2) A-Vitamin-A, B- Beriberi, C-Keeps mouth and skin healthy
(3) A-Vitamin-C, B- Rickets, C-Increase the Immune system
(4) A-Vitamin-A, B- Rickets, C-Blood clotting process

29. I am the life line of a person's body. I am the king of circulatory system. I pump the blood throughout the body and if I stop working, the person will die. Who am I?

(1) Heart
(2) Brain
(3) Kidney
(4) Lungs

30. Following test is carried out to confirm ............... in food.
Drop iodine solution onto the food

(1) Glucose
(2) Protein
(3) Fat
(4) Starch

31. Which process describes the changes from a caterpillar to a butterfly?

(1) Germination
(2) Metamorphosis
(3) Photosynthesis
(4) Fertilization

32. Which one is the correct food chain?

(1) Eagle → Snake → Grasshopper → Grass → Frog
(2) Frog → Snake → Eagle → Grasshopper → Grass
(3) Grasshopper → Grass → Snake → Frog → Eagle
(4) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle

33. Which of the following are good sources of roughage ?

(1) Milk, meat, soyabean, grains
(2) Egg, curd, pulses, fruit juice
(3) Broccoli, fruits, carrot, spinach
(4) Onion, yoghurt, cheese, pulses

Section D : Mathematics

34. The fraction represented by the shaded region in the given figure is

(1) 1/6
(2) 1/4
(3) 3/12
(4) 3/14

35. In the following pictograph, number of video games sold in week has been shown. (Scale ---- = 7 video games)

How many video games were sold during first four days of the week?

(1) 120
(2) 140
(3) 160
(4) 180

36. A plastic pipe 50 metres long weighs 4 kilograms. What is the weight of a similar pipe that is 20 metres long?

(1) 1.5 kg
(2) 1.6 kg
(3) 1.8 kg
(4) 2.2 kg

37. In the diagram, each of the integer 1 to 9 is to be placed in one circle so that the integers in every straight row of three joined circles add to 18. Find the value of the number represented by X.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8

38.

(1) 40
(2) 50
(3) 12
(4) 70

39. Saurabh has organised his birthday party and invited his friends. If he is planning to give 150 gm of cake and 350 ml of cold-drink to each guest. How much quantity of cake and cold-drink he need for 50 guest?

(1) 7.5 kg cake and 17.5 litres cold-drink
(2) 5 kg cake and 22.5 litres cold-drink
(3) 8 kg cake and 12.5 litres cold-drink
(4) 12 kg cake and 17.5 litres cold-drink

40.

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 11
(4) 16

41. An auditorium had 240 rows of chairs. If there are 170 chairs in each row, how many persons can be seated in the auditorium?

(1) 40800
(2) 408
(3) 41000
(4) 410

42. Ram mixed 3.6 kg of hazelnuts with 0.75 kg of cashews. He packed the mixture equally into 5 boxes. What is the mass of each box ?

(1) 14.25 kg
(2) 4.35 kg
(3) 0.87 kg
(4) 0.72 kg

43. The following pictograph shows the number of Maruti Vans manufactured during a week. Read the table and answer the question given below :

Find the total number of maruti vans manufactured in a week.

(1) 2300
(2) 4600
(3) 23
(4) 46

44. The length of a rectangle is 7/5 of its breadth. If its perimeter is 144 m, what is its area?

(1) 1260 m²
(2) 1620 m²
(3) 1800 m²
(4) 2340 m²

45. What part of total area is shaded.

(1) 4/15
(2) 8/32
(3) 7/16
(4) 10/32

46. 12 + 2/10 + 4/1000 =

(1) 12.204
(2) 12.240
(3) 12.402
(4) 12.240

47. 3 × (3 + 3) ÷ 3 equals

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 12

48. In the diagram, what is the area of the shaded triangle?

(1) 6.5 cm²
(2) 7.5 cm²
(3) 15 cm²
(4) 13 cm²

49. Simplify : 3 1/2 + 15/4 – 2 3/4 – 1 5/8

(1) 8 1/6
(2) 6 1/8
(3) 50/8
(4) 31/6

50. The following pictograph shows the number of autos manufactured during a week. Read the table and answer the question given below :

On which day were the maximum number of autos manufactured ?

(1) Monday
(2) Tuesday
(3) Thursday
(4) Friday

51. Simplify : [4.6 – {3.2 – (1.8 – 2.2 – 1.8)}]

(1) 1.8
(2) 2.8
(3) 3.8
(4) 4.8

52. Find the area of shaded region in given figure.

(1) 225 m²
(2) 150 m²
(3) 180 m²
(4) 200 m²

53. 0.35 equals

(1) 700/20
(2) 7/20
(3) 70/20
(4) 7/200

54. 1004 × 1390 equals

(1) 13,95,460
(2) 13,95,560
(3) 12,95,560
(4) 11,56,500

55. The product divided by the multiplicand equals the

(1) Multiplier
(2) Smaller number
(3) Larger number
(4) None of these

56. Amos is reading a 400 page book. On Monday, he reads 40 pages. On each day after the first, the number of pages that he reads is 20 more than on the previous day. Amos finishes the book on

(1) Friday
(2) Saturday
(3) Sunday
(4) Tuesday

57. The angle between two parallel line is

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 30°

58. Subtract 9 km 75 m from 16 km 20 m.

(1) 6 km
(2) 6.945 km
(3) 5.965 km
(4) 6.941 km

Section E : Mental Ability

59. Which of the following words will come at second position if all the words are arranged alphabetically?

(1) Boast
(2) Broad
(3) Board
(4) Bull

60. Two men and two women are playing cards and are seated North, East, South and West of a table. No women is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing south, which direction ladies are facing ?

(1) North and East
(2) East and West
(3) South and East
(4) North and West

61. Following question are based on the following letters of English alphabet. Study the pattern and then answer these questions.

If second half of the above alphabets is written in reverse order, which letter would be 5^th from right of 9^th letter from left?

(1) Z
(2) M
(3) N
(4) P

62. Below you are served with four different type of Venn diagrams that indicate a definite relationship between Tennis, Rugby and Soccer. You need to find out the diagram which is the most relevant

63. In a certain code, "APPROVAL" is writen as "LAVORPPA". How would "ROUTINE" be written in that code?

(1) ENITUOR
(2) ROUENIT
(3) UORENIT
(4) ENITOUR

64. Sara is facing towards West and turns through 45° clockwise, again 180° clockwise. In which direction is she facing now?

(1) North-West
(2) North-East
(3) South-East
(4) South-West

65. If in the English alphabet, every alternate letter from B onwards is written in small letters while others are written in capitals, then how will the 3^rd day from Tuesday will be coded?

(1) WeDNeSdAY
(2) WEdnESdAY
(3) THURSdAY
(4) frIdAY

66. If 'Mountain' is called 'Star', 'Star' is called 'Flower', 'Flower' is called 'Paper' and 'Paper' is called 'Pen', then on which Honey bee sits to prepare honey?

(1) Flowers
(2) Star
(3) Paper
(4) Pen

67. Megha, Priya, Jayanti, Bhavya, Ritu, Teena and Garima are sitting around a circle facing centre and playing Antakshari. Bhavya is third to the left of Jayanti who is second to the left of Megha. Priya is third to the left of Bhavya and second to the right of Ritu. Teena is not an immediate neighbour of Megha. Who is between Bhavya and Megha?

(1) Ritu
(2) Jayanti
(3) Garima
(4) Priya

68. Study the following information carefully to answer the below question
i. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting along a circle and facing at the centre.
ii. P is between T and S.
iii. U is between Q and V.
iv. Q is 2nd to the right of T.
Where is V sitting ?

(1) 2nd to the left of P
(2) 2nd to the left of Q
(3) Immediate left of U
(4) None of these

69. In a certain code, RAIN is written as "* % + #", INK is written as "# $". How is "R A N K" written in that code?

(1) * % + #
(2) + # $ *
(3) # # * *
(4) * % # $

70. Find the missing number in the given series.
14, 18, 23, 29, ?

(1) 33
(2) 34
(3) 36
(4) 37

71. Which answer figure will be the correct mirror image the question figure

72. In Alpha-numeric series, letters, and numbers (or digits) together are placed in a specific pattern. Find the correct alternative from the given options.
20AB, 40CD, 60EF, 80GH, ?

(1) 100IJ
(2) 100JI
(3) 120IJ
(4) 120JI

73. In the given figure the circle represents children who like Burger, the triangle represents children who like Pizza, reactangle represents children who like Sandwich

Which region represents children who like burger and sandwich both but not pizza ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6

74. In the following question, choose the correct water–image of the given word from amongst the four alternative (1), (2), (3) and (4) given along with it.
DISC

75. Riya walks 2 km towards East and then she turns to South and walks 4 km. Again she turns to East and walks 3 km after this she turns to north and walks 4 km. Now, how far is she from starting point?

(1) 5 km
(2) 7 km
(3) 6 km
(4) 4 km

76. Find the water image of following figure.

77. Which one comes next?
800, 400, 200, 100, 50, ?

(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 30

78. Select the correct mirror image of figure (X).

79. If in a certain code TRACTOR is coded as ARTCROT. How is SCOOTER written in that code?

(1) RTEAOTO
(2) CSOOETR
(3) OCSTORE
(4) OCSORET

80. Find the missing term : 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ?

(1) 53
(2) 95
(3) 84
(4) 66

ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test Exam Pattern 2026-27

The ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 exam pattern includes objective-type questions from five subjects. The offline examination contains 80 questions, while the online examination includes 100 questions. Each correct answer carries four marks, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers. Both exam modes have a duration of two hours.

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex​ Sample Paper 2026-27

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex PYQs for Class 5 to 10 PDF

👉 Also Check: Allen TALLENTEX Syllabus 2026-27

Benefits of Solving ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test

Solving the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test PDF helps students understand the question format and practise different types of problems. It also helps them revise important topics and improve their understanding of basic concepts.

Regular mock test practice improves speed and accuracy. Students can identify difficult topics, reduce common mistakes and learn to manage their time during the examination. They can also use the answer key to check their responses and evaluate their performance.

How to Prepare Using TALLENTEX Class 6 Mock Test Papers?

Students should first revise important chapters from the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 6 syllabus. After completing their revision, they can download the mock test PDF and attempt all 80 questions within the two-hour time limit.

Once the test is complete, students should check their answers using the provided answer key. They should review incorrect responses, focus on weak topics and practise more questions to improve their preparation.