The NEET 2026 examination is scheduled to be held on May 3, 2026; with only a few days remaining, it is now time for revision.
In this post, we have compiled the 50 most anticipated questions for NEET 2026 Biology, accompanied by detailed explanations for their answers.
NEET 2026 Biology 50 Most Expected Questions PDF is a carefully curated collection based on previous year trends and NTA exam patterns.
These questions cover chapters with a high weightage in the syllabus. This PDF will prove to be an invaluable resource for your last-minute revision. You can download the complete PDF from the table provided below.
NEET 2026 Biology 50 Most Expected Questions
Ques 1: Which of the following is the correct unit of productivity in an ecosystem?
A. (KCal m-2) yr-1
B. gm-2
C. KCal m-2
D. KCal m-3
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Productivity is measured as the rate of energy production per unit area per unit time, hence expressed as KCal m-2 yr-1.
Ques 2: The first occurrence of menstruation in females is known as:
A. Ovulation
B. Menopause
C. Menarche
D. Diapause
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Menarche marks the beginning of the menstrual cycle in females, indicating reproductive maturity.
Ques 3: Genes R and Y assort independently. If RRYY produces round yellow seeds and rryy produces wrinkled green seeds, what is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation?
A. 9:7
B. 1:2:1
C. 3:1
D. 9:3:3:1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: This is a classic dihybrid cross showing independent assortment, resulting in a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio.
Ques 4: What is the main function of spindle fibres during mitosis?
A. Regulate cell growth
B. Separate chromosomes
C. Synthesise DNA
D. Repair DNA
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spindle fibres attach to centromeres and pull sister chromatids apart during cell division.
Ques 5: How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required to form a mature female gametophyte from a megaspore mother cell in angiosperms?
A. No meiosis and 2 mitosis
B. 2 meiosis and 3 mitosis
C. 1 meiosis and 2 mitosis
D. 1 meiosis and 3 mitosis
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: One meiosis produces four megaspores, followed by three mitotic divisions to form the embryo sac.
Ques 6: Which of the following statements about antibody structure is NOT correct?
A. Constant regions are at C-terminal
B. Two heavy and two light chains are present
C. Chains are linked by disulfide bonds
D. Antigen binding site is at C-terminal
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The antigen-binding site is located at the variable (N-terminal) region, not the C-terminal.
Ques 7: Assertion (A): Tapetum cells have dense cytoplasm and are often multinucleate.
Reason (R): Multiple nuclei increase efficiency in nourishing developing pollen.
A. A false, R true
B. Both true, R explains A
C. Both true, R doesn't explain A
D. A true, R false
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Tapetum cells are multinucleate (true), but the reason is not the correct explanation given in the NCERT.
Ques 8: In bryophytes, gemmae are involved in:
A. Gaseous exchange
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Asexual reproduction
D. Nutrient absorption
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Gemmae are vegetative propagules that help in asexual reproduction.
Ques 9: Who proposed that the genetic code consists of triplet nucleotides?
A. Franklin Stahl
B. George Gamow
C. Francis Crick
D. Jacques Monod
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: George Gamow suggested that codons are made of three nucleotides.
Ques 10: Sweet potato (root) and potato (stem) represent which type of evolution?
A. Analogy, divergent
B. Analogy, convergent
C. Homology, divergent
D. Homology, convergent
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: They perform similar functions but have different origins, showing convergent evolution (analogy).
Ques 11: Histone proteins are rich in:
A. Phenylalanine and Arginine
B. Lysine and Arginine
C. Leucine and Lysine
D. Phenylalanine and Leucine
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Histones are basic proteins rich in lysine and arginine, aiding DNA binding.
Ques 12: Which statement about RuBisCO is correct?
A. Catalyzes carboxylation of RuBP
B. Active only in the dark
C. Higher affinity for oxygen
D. Involved in photolysis
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: RuBisCO catalyzes CO2 fixation in the Calvin cycle.
Ques 13: The protein part of an enzyme is called:
A. Prosthetic group
B. Cofactor
C. Coenzyme
D. Apoenzyme
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Apoenzyme is the protein portion; cofactor is the non-protein component.
Ques 14: Which factor is responsible for termination of transcription?
A. Gamma (γ)
B. Alpha (α)
C. Sigma (σ)
D. Rho (ρ)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Rho factor helps terminate transcription in prokaryotes.
Ques 15: Which hormone is released by the pituitary but synthesised in the hypothalamus?
A. ACTH
B. LH
C. ADH
D. FSH
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ADH is synthesised in the hypothalamus and stored/released by the posterior pituitary.
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Download NEET 2026 Biology 50 Most Expected Questions
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