ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 PDF Download

ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 PDF assists in preparing the Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE). Candidates can practice the significant questions according to the sample paper and exam pattern of ANTHE 2026 Medical. This mock test will have questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology subjects. It enables candidates to get aware about the type of questions asked, their accuracy and time management in the exam.

In this article, we have provided the ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 PDF with answer key and short solutions. Candidates can download this practice paper and a combined PDF including all these three study materials.

ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026: Overview

The ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 contains 40 multiple-choice questions carrying a total of 90 marks. Students have 1 hour to complete the paper, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Download ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 PDF

Students planning to appear in ANTHE 2026 will get the ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test PDF from the given below. There are 40 questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, which have been taken from the sample paper of ANTHE 2026 Medical.

👉 Download PDF:  ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test with Answer Key and Solutions

ANTHE Class 12 Medical Mock Test 2026 Question

Physics

Section I: Single Correct Answer Type

Q1.

(1) 3 m s⁻¹
(2) 4 m s⁻¹
(3) 5 m s⁻¹
(4) 6 m s⁻¹

Q2. If a particle is moving on a curved path with constant speed, then

(1) Velocity remains constant
(2) Body is said to be under acceleration
(3) Body remains unaccelerated
(4) Body is moving with decreasing velocity

Q3.

(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 53°
(4) 37°

Q4.

(1) 8k̂
(2) −8(ĵ + k̂)
(3) 8(ĵ + k̂)
(4) −8k̂

Q5. Two rings have moment of inertia in the ratio of 2 : 1 about the axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of ring. Their diameters are in the ratio of 2 : 1. The ratio of their masses will be

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

Q6. If coefficient of restitution between two balls is 1/2 then which of the following statement is correct for given figure?

(1) Velocity of A after collision is 4 m/s leftward
(2) Collision will not take place
(3) Velocity of A after collision is 4 m/s rightward
(4) Velocity of B after collision is 11/2 m/s rightward

Q7. The force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person, standing there is more than the weight of the person, if the elevator is

(1) Going up and slowing down
(2) Going down and slowing down
(3) Going up and speeding up
(4) Both (2) and (3)

Q8. A block of mass m is sliding down on a fixed smooth inclined plane as shown in figure. The acceleration of the block is (Take g = 10 m/s²)

(1) 6 m/s²
(2) 10 m/s²
(3) 8 m/s²
(4) 5 m/s²

Q9.

Section II: One or More Than One Correct Answer Type

Q10. The dimensional formula of work is same as that of

(1) Energy
(2) Power
(3) Torque
(4) Impulse

Chemistry

Section I: Single Correct Answer Type

Q11. If the mole fraction of acetone in ethyl alcohol is 0.3, then the molality of acetone in the solution is

(1) 4.5 m
(2) 6.2 m
(3) 8.3 m
(4) 9.3 m

Q12. Volume of CO₂ liberated at STP on the complete combustion of 80 g of methane gas in presence of excess of O₂ gas is

(1) 224 L
(2) 56 L
(3) 112 L
(4) 22.4 L

Q13.

Q14. The inert gas which has highest value of electron gain enthalpy is

(1) Xe
(2) Rn
(3) Ar
(4) Ne

Q15. The correct order of ionic radii for the following species is

(1) H⁺ > H > H⁻
(2) N³⁻ > O²⁻ > F⁻
(3) Na⁺ > F⁻ > O²⁻
(4) Mg²⁺ > Al³⁺ > N³⁻

Q16. Which among the following is an example of odd-electron molecule?

(1) CO
(2) NO
(3) CH₄
(4) H₂

Q17. Which of the following option represents the correct bond order?

(1) O₂ < N₂⁺ < C₂²⁻
(2) C₂²⁻ < O₂ < N₂⁺
(3) N₂⁺ < O₂ < C₂²⁻
(4) N₂⁺ < C₂²⁻ < O₂

Q18. The standard free energy change (ΔG°) is related to K (equilibrium constant) as

(1) ΔG° = −2.303 RT log K
(2) ΔG° = 2.303 RT log K
(3) ΔG° = RT log K
(4) ΔG° = −RT log K

Q19. The difference between ΔH and ΔU for the following reaction at 25°C is
2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l)

(1) −298R
(2) −894R
(3) +894R
(4) +298R

Section II: One or More Than One Correct Answer Type

Q20. Identify the orbital(s) with same number of radial nodes as that of orbital 4d.

(1) 3p
(2) 4f
(3) 2s
(4) 5f

Biology

Section I: Single Correct Answer Type

Q21. Which structure is absolutely necessary for biological activity of protein molecule and is also involved in forming active site of an enzyme?

(1) Alpha-helix
(2) Beta pleated sheet
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) Primary structure

Q22. How much CO₂ is delivered by 5 L of deoxygenated blood to alveoli in an adult human, under normal physiological conditions?

(1) 250 mL
(2) 200 mL
(3) 750 mL
(4) 400 mL

Q23. Select the correct set of structures that are not supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.

(1) Initial bronchioles, trachea
(2) Primary bronchi, secondary bronchi
(3) Terminal bronchioles, alveoli
(4) Initial bronchioles, alveoli

Q24. Pulmonary artery that carries deoxygenated blood to the lung arises from

(1) Right atrium
(2) Left ventricle
(3) Right ventricle
(4) Left atrium

Q25. Hepatic portal vein carries blood from ____ to the ____ before it is delivered to the systemic circulation. Choose the correct option to fill the blanks respectively.

(1) Liver, Intestine
(2) Intestine, Liver
(3) Kidney, Liver
(4) Liver, Kidney

Q26. Number of nephrons present in both kidneys of a human is nearly

(1) 1 million
(2) 2 million
(3) 3 million
(4) 4 million

Q27. Which of the following parts of nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney?

(1) Malpighian corpuscles, PCT and DCT
(2) PCT and Loop of Henle
(3) DCT and Loop of Henle
(4) Loop of Henle only

Q28. The flat bone of axial skeleton lying on the ventral midline of thorax is

(1) Ribs
(2) Sternum
(3) Clavicle
(4) Hyoid

Q29. In the middle of the anisotropic band, the thick filaments are held together by a thin fibrous membrane called

(1) ‘I’ band
(2) ‘M’ line
(3) ‘H’ zone
(4) ‘Z’ line

Q30. Algal cell wall does not have

(1) Chitin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Galactans
(4) Calcium carbonate

Q31. The correct sequence of different phases of cell cycle is

(1) G₁, M, G₂, S
(2) G₁, S, G₂, M
(3) G₂, S, G₁, M
(4) M, S, G₁, G₂

Q32. Lichens are symbiotic association between

(1) Algae and Fungi
(2) Viruses and Fungi
(3) Algae and Viruses
(4) Bacteria and Algae

Q33. Bilateral symmetry is found in the flowers of

(1) Mustard
(2) Datura
(3) Gulmohur
(4) Chilli

Q34. Arrangement of veins and veinlets in leaf lamina is called

(1) Venation
(2) Phyllotaxy
(3) Aestivation
(4) Placentation

Q35. Bacterial flagellum

(1) Is made up of tubulin protein
(2) Helps the bacterium to attach to the rocks in streams
(3) Is thin filamentous extension from the cell wall of bacterium
(4) Is different from eukaryotic flagellum as it does not help in motility

Q36. Synaptonemal complex

(1) Dissolves during diakinesis stage
(2) Stabilises the two homologous chromosomes
(3) Is formed by a pair of synapsed chromosomes called bivalent which first appears during pachytene stage
(4) Formation involves activity of recombinase enzyme

Q37. Human beings belong to

(1) Species – sapiens
(2) Order – Homo
(3) Class – Chordata
(4) Family – Primata

Section II: One or More Than One Correct Answer Type

Q38. Choose the correct option(s) w.r.t. the cell organelle which plays a major role in heredity and also controls the activities of other organelles in eukaryotic cells.

(1) Membraneless spherical structures are present in its matrix, which are the site for active rRNA synthesis.
(2) Duplication of centriole and chromosome occurs in it.
(3) There is presence of highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibres, which can be stained by the basic dyes.
(4) These are absent in mature mammalian erythrocytes and sieve tube cells of vascular plants.

Q39. The class of fungi in which only the asexual or vegetative phases are known, exhibits all of the following features, except

(1) Large number of them are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
(2) Alternaria and Colletotrichum belong to this group and they show septate and branched mycelium.
(3) Morels and truffles are the edible delicacies of this group.
(4) Asexual reproduction takes place by motile spores, that are produced in sporangium.

Q40. Select the correct set of match(es).

(1) Thymidylic acid − phosphate group = Thymidine
(2) Adenosine + phosphate group = Arachidonic acid
(3) Cytosine + phosphoric acid + ribose sugar = Cytidylic acid
(4) Guanosine − phosphate group = Guanine

ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026: Exam Pattern

The ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 follows a 90-mark question paper format. It includes two sections containing single-correct and multiple-correct questions.

In Section I, students must choose only one correct answer from four options. In Section II, one or more options may be correct. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Sample Paper

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Syllabus 2026

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Previous Year Question Paper

Benefits of Solving ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026

Practice of the ANTHE Medical Class 12 Mock Test 2026 will enable the students to get acquainted with the exam pattern and various types of questions. Students can also improve their problem-solving abilities, accuracy, and time management through practice.

Students are advised to complete the total of 40 questions in 60 minutes. Once they have completed their mock test paper, students can match their answers with the help of an answer key and solutions PDF.