ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026 PDF Download

The ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026 PDF allows students to prepare themselves for the Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE). Students can practise questions which are important as per the ANTHE 2026 Medical Sample Paper & Exam Pattern. This mock test includes Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. This is beneficial for students to know the pattern of the questions and learn about time management during the exam.

Here, in this post, we have provided the ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026 PDF along with the answer key and short solution. In addition to this, there is also a PDF available that consists of all the study material in one place.

ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026: Overview

ANTHE Class 12 Passed Medical Mock Test 2026 has 40 multiple choice type questions and the total marks are 90. The time duration for attempting the test is one hour, and there is no negative marking.

Particulars	Details
Exam Name	Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE)
Exam Year	2026
Conducting Body	Aakash Educational Services Limited (AESL)
Mock Test Name	ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026
Stream	Medical
Category	Class 12 Passed
Sample Paper Level	Class XII Studying Moving to XII Passed
Subjects	Physics, Chemistry and Biology
Total Questions	40 MCQs
Maximum Marks	90
Exam Duration	1 Hour
Physics	10 Questions
Chemistry	10 Questions
Biology	20 Questions
Question Types	Single-Correct and Multiple-Correct MCQs
Negative Marking	No
Mock Test Language	English
Mock Test Format	PDF
Answer Key and Solutions	Available
Official Website	anthe.aakash.ac.in

Download ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026 PDF

The PDF of ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test is available to the students who are going to write ANTHE 2026 through the below given. The sample paper comprises 40 questions in Physics, Chemistry, and Biology according to the ANTHE 2026 Medical sample paper of Class 12 passed.

👉 Download PDF: ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test with Answer Key and Solutions

ANTHE Class 12 Passed Medical Mock Test 2026

Physics

Section I – Single Correct Answer

Q1. The magnetic flux increases from 4 Wb to 12 Wb through a coil of resistance 200 Ω in 0.2 second. The net charge passed through the coil is

(1) 20 mC

(2) 40 mC

(3) 10 mC

(4) 80 mC

Q2. A 100 μF capacitor is connected to an AC supply having angular frequency ω = 100 rad s⁻¹. The reactance of the capacitor is

(1) 10 Ω

(2) 1 Ω

(3) 0.1 Ω

(4) 100 Ω

Q3. The electric force experienced by a point charge of 1 μC is 5 × 10⁻³ N. The magnitude of the electric field at that point due to the source charge is

(1) 5 × 10³ N/C

(2) 25 × 10³ N/C

(3) 5 × 10⁻³ N/C

(4) 2.5 × 10³ N/C

Q4. Three points A, B and C are located in a non-uniform electric field as shown in the figure. The intensity of electric field is

(1) Maximum at A

(2) Maximum at C

(3) Minimum at C

(4) Maximum at B

Q5. An electric network shown in the figure is part of an electric circuit, then current I is

(1) 1.5 A

(2) 2.5 A

(3) 2 A

(4) 1 A

Q6. A particle having charge 2 C is projected perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic field of 5 T with a speed of 10 cm/s. Force acting on the charged particle will be

(1) 10 N

(2) 1 N

(3) 0.1 N

(4) 100 N

Q7. Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative for

(1) Diamagnetic substances

(2) Paramagnetic substances

(3) Ferromagnetic substances

(4) All of these

Q8.

(1) 2 Wb

(2) 10 Wb

(3) 8 Wb

(4) 6 Wb

Q9. A (20/π) mH inductor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz AC source. The inductive reactance of the circuit will be

(1) 1 Ω

(2) 2 Ω

(3) 3 Ω

(4) 4 Ω

Section II – One or More Than One Correct Answer

Q10. In case of motion of a charged particle under the effect of a uniform electric field, choose the correct option. (Symbols have their usual meaning)

(1) Acceleration of charge is constant

(2) If the particle is initially at rest, then velocity after time t is qEt/m

(3) If the particle is projected perpendicular to the field with an initial velocity v₀, then path of charge particle is parabola

(4) If the particle is projected perpendicular to the field with an initial velocity v₀, then path of charge particle is straight line

Chemistry

Section I – Single Correct Answer

Q11. Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M Na₃PO₄(aq) solution at 27°C is (assume 90% ionization of Na₃PO₄)

(1) 9.1 atm

(2) 3.2 atm

(3) 6.65 atm

(4) 2.21 atm

Q12. Standard reduction potential for Zn²⁺/Zn couple is −0.76 V and that for Mg²⁺/Mg is −2.36 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be

(1) 3.12 V

(2) −3.12 V

(3) 1.6 V

(4) −1.8 V

Q13. The molar conductance at infinite dilution of ACl₂, BOH and BCl are 200, 100 and 50 S cm² mol⁻¹ respectively then the molar conductance of A(OH)₂ at infinite dilution will be

(1) 250 S cm² mol⁻¹

(2) 350 S cm² mol⁻¹

(3) 300 S cm² mol⁻¹

(4) 150 S cm² mol⁻¹

Q14. In zero order reaction for every 10°C rise in temperature the rate of the reaction is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 40°C to 90°C then the rate of the reaction will become

(1) 32 times

(2) 16 times

(3) 8 times

(4) 64 times

Q15. The slope of Arrhenius plot (ln k vs 1/T) of first order reaction is −2 × 10³ K. The value of Eₐ of the reaction is

(1) −83 kJ mol⁻¹

(2) 16.6 kJ mol⁻¹

(3) 83.0 kJ mol⁻¹

(4) 166 kJ mol⁻¹

Q16. Which among the given ions has spin only magnetic moment value of 2.83 BM?

(1) Ti²⁺

(2) Cr³⁺

(3) Zn²⁺

(4) Co²⁺

Q17. Most common oxidation states of Nickel and Vanadium respectively are

(1) +3 and +5

(2) +4 and +3

(3) +2 and +5

(4) +4 and +4

Q18. The number of geometrical isomers exhibited by coordination compound [Co(en)₂Cl₂] is

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 6

Q19. Wilkinson’s catalyst is a complex of

(1) Rh

(2) Ir

(3) Pd

(4) Cr

Section II – One or More Than One Correct Answer

Q20. Correct statement(s) among the following is/are

(1) A mixture of chloroform and acetone forms solution which shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law.

(2) The solutions that show a large positive deviation from Raoult’s law form maximum boiling azeotrope at a specific composition.

(3) Two solutions having same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solution.

(4) The values of Kb (molal elevation constant) depend upon the nature of the solvent.

Biology

Section I – Single Correct Answer

Q21. Mobile genetic elements, that provide complementary RNA and replicate via an RNA intermediate to perform silencing of mRNA, are generally used in

(1) PCR

(2) ELISA

(3) RNAi

(4) Gene therapy

Q22. By using which of the following restriction endonucleases, one can perform insertional inactivation of ‘rop’ gene in pBR322?

(1) Bam HI

(2) Eco RI

(3) Pvu I

(4) Pvu II

Q23. For bacterial cells to take up DNA, they must first be made competent, thus they are treated with

(1) Armed pathogen vectors

(2) Low velocity microparticles of gold

(3) DNA of Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(4) Specific concentration of divalent cations

Q24. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. the techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis of diseases.

(1) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay

(2) Polymerase chain reaction

(3) Urine analysis

(4) Recombinant DNA technology

Q25. The failure of body to differentiate between ‘self’ and ‘non-self’ cells leads to

(1) Genetic disorders

(2) Occupational disorders

(3) Allergic disorders

(4) Auto-immune disorders

Q26. Cells which act as the HIV factory in an infected person

(1) Constitute 60 - 65% of the total WBCs

(2) Are the least abundant granulocytes

(3) Produce immunoglobulins

(4) Are phagocytic cells found in tissues

Q27. In which of the following ARTs, blastocyst with 32-celled stage is transferred into the uterus of the female who cannot conceive naturally?

(1) GIFT

(2) ZIFT

(3) IUT

(4) IUI

Q28. All of the following are various complications due to STIs, except

(1) Conception

(2) Still births

(3) Ectopic pregnancies

(4) Infertility

Q29. During cleavage in embryonic development, there is increase in all of the following, except

(1) Number of blastomeres

(2) Size of blastomeres

(3) Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio

(4) DNA content

Q30. All of the following are advantages of seed to angiosperms, except

(1) Generation of new genetic combinations

(2) Helps in dispersal to new habitats

(3) Helps in nourishment of young seedlings

(4) It forms the basis of agriculture

Q31. The proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the (a) Thalamus (b) Sepal (c) Petal (d) Anther. The correct one(s) is/are

(1) (d) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b) only

(4) (b) and (c) only

Q32. The pitch of the DNA helix is

(1) 2.2 nm

(2) 3.4 nm

(3) 5.2 nm

(4) 6.1 nm

Q33. The number of nucleotides found in φ × 174 bacteriophage is

(1) 48502

(2) 4.6 × 10⁶

(3) 5386

(4) 3.3 × 10⁹

Q34. ‘In any cross, if recombination frequency is 5%’, it means

(1) The distance between the observed genes is 5 cM

(2) Number of recombinants is 5 in 10 progenies

(3) Their crossover value is 1/5

(4) Out of total progeny produced, 5 are parental types

Q35. Sex of the chicks is determined by

(1) Their female parent

(2) Both of their male and female parents

(3) The temperature at which the egg is incubated

(4) Their male parent

Q36. By converting milk into curd, lactic acid bacteria helps in all, except

(1) Improving nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B₁₂

(2) Producing acids that partially digest milk protein

(3) Checking disease causing microbes in our stomach

(4) Fermenting milk by utilization of oxygen

Q37. The technique where crops are raised using biofertilizers is known as

(1) Genetic engineering

(2) Organic farming

(3) Integrated Pest Management

(4) Tissue culture

Section II – One or More Than One Correct Answer

Q38. An inborn error of metabolism that exhibit autosomal recessive inheritance pattern,

(1) Involves conversion of amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine

(2) Can also exhibit change in multiple phenotypic expressions

(3) Is caused by mutation in the gene that codes for the enzyme, phenyl alanine hydroxylase

(4) Is controlled by a gene which is pleiotropic

Q39. Select the mismatched pair(s).

(1) Har Gobind Khorana – Developed the chemical method that is instrumental in synthesising RNA molecules with defined combinations of bases

(2) Marshall Nirenberg – Discovered an enzyme, polynucleotide phosphorylase that was helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequence in template independent manner

(3) Severo Ochoa – Devised a cell-free system for protein synthesis that helped the genetic code to be deciphered

(4) George Gamow – Suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, the code should be made up of three nucleotides

Q40. Which of the following pairs of hormones are produced in a healthy adult non-pregnant woman?

(1) Estrogen, progesterone

(2) hCG, hPL

(3) Estrogen, cortisol

(4) FSH, LH

ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026: Exam Pattern

The ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026 follows a 90-mark question paper format. It contains two sections with single-correct and multiple-correct questions.

Section	Question Type	Total Questions	Marks Per Question
Section I	Single Correct MCQs	35	2 Marks
Section II	One or More Correct MCQs	5	4 Marks
Total		40	90 Marks

In Section I, students must select only one correct answer from four options. In Section II, one or more options may be correct. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Sample Paper

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Syllabus 2026

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Previous Year Question Paper

Benefits of Solving ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026

Taking the ANTHE Medical Class 12 Passed Mock Test 2026 allows students to grasp the examination pattern as well as get acquainted with various question types. Students can increase their accuracy, learn about time management and solving problems by taking the ANTHE Mock Test.

Students must attempt all the 40 questions in one hour. Once they have completed their test, they can cross-check their answers from the solution and answer keys provided in PDF format.