Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

The Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27 helps students prepare for the upcoming TALLENTEX examination. By solving mock tests, students can understand the exam pattern, practise important questions and improve their accuracy. The mock test includes questions from Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Mental Ability, helping students revise important concepts and check their preparation level.

Students can download the Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test PDF to practise exam-style questions before the examination. Regular practice helps students identify weak topics, improve problem-solving skills and manage their time effectively.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27: Overview

The Allen TALLENTEX examination is a scholarship and talent assessment exam conducted by ALLEN Career Institute. The Class 10 mock test follows the offline exam pattern and contains 80 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four options, with only one correct answer. Students can check the important exam details below.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

Students preparing for the examination can download the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF to practise important questions. The practice paper contains 80 MCQs covering all five subjects. Students should attempt the complete paper within the two-hour time limit to assess their preparation and improve their exam performance.

Students can access the Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test PDF and its answer key through the links provided below.

👉 Download PDF: ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27

ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test 2026-27

Section-A: Physics

1. The distance between three consecutive troughs in a wave produced in a string is 4 cm. If 2.5 wave cycles pass through any point in a second, the wave in the string has velocity

(1) 10 cm/s
(2) 0.16 cm/s
(3) 0.8 cm/s
(4) 5 cm/s

2. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called

(1) reflection
(2) refraction
(3) dispersion
(4) deviation

3. The velocity of a body moving with a uniform retardation of 5 m/s² is 100 m/s at an instant. Its velocity after 7 second is

(1) 135 m/s
(2) 100 m/s
(3) 65 m/s
(4) Zero

4. A passenger in an aeroplane

(1) shall never see a rainbow
(2) may see a primary and a secondary rainbow as concentric circles
(3) may see a primary and a secondary as concentric arcs
(4) shall never see a secondary rainbow

5. A child is stuck on a frictionless horizontal surface and cannot exert any horizontal force by pushing against the surface. How can he get off?

(1) By running
(2) By rolling
(3) By jumping
(4) By spitting or coughing

6. A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 m/s. The speed of the image relative to the man is

(1) 15 ms⁻¹
(2) 30 ms⁻¹
(3) 35 ms⁻¹
(4) 20 ms⁻¹

7. A plane mirror makes an angle of 30° with horizontal. If a vertical ray strikes the mirror, find the angle between mirror and reflected ray

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

8. Refractive index of glass is 3/2 and refractive index of water is 4/3. If the speed of light in glass is 2.00 × 10⁸ m/s, the speed in water will be

(1) 2.67 × 10⁸ m/s
(2) 2.25 × 10⁸ m/s
(3) 1.78 × 10⁸ m/s
(4) 1.50 × 10⁸ m/s

9. Eddie hits a golf ball from the tee into the cup. At point A, the ball is stationary on the tee. At point B, the ball is at its highest point in the air. At point C, the ball is rolling on the ground. At point D, the ball is stopped in the cup. The diagram below shows the path the ball traveled from the tee to the cup

Choose the correct option

10. A ray of light follows the path as shown in figure as it travels though different media. Choose the correct relation regarding refractive indices from the given alternatives.

(1) μ₁ > μ₂ < μ₃ = μ₄ > μ₅
(2) μ₁ = μ₂ < μ₃ = μ₄ > μ₅
(3) μ₁ > μ₂ < μ₃ > μ₄ < μ₅
(4) μ₁ < μ₂ < μ₃ = μ₄ > μ₅

11. An iron sphere of mass 20 kg has same diameter as an aluminium sphere of mass 12 kg. Both spheres are dropped from towers of same height. When they are 10 meter above the ground, they have the same (neglect air resistance)

(1) acceleration
(2) velocity
(3) kinetic energy
(4) both (1) and (2)

12. A force of 980 N acts on a body for 0.1 seconds. Calculate the change in momentum of the body.

(1) 98 N s
(2) 9.8 N s
(3) 0.98 N s
(4) 980 N s

13. The weight of a rock on the moon is 200.6 N. What is its mass on the earth? (Take g of earth = 9.8 ms⁻², g of moon = 1.7 ms⁻²)

(1) 20 kg
(2) 118 kg
(3) 200 kg
(4) 1180 kg

14. Two metal spheres of equal radius r and equal densities are touching each other. The force of attraction F between them is

(1) F ∝ r⁴
(2) F ∝ r⁶
(3) F ∝ r²
(4) F ∝ 1/r²

15. Two men with their weights in the ratio 5 : 3 run up a staircase in times in the ratio 11 : 9. Then the ratio of power of first to that of second is-

(1) 15/11
(2) 11/15
(3) 11/9
(4) 9/11

Section-B: Chemistry

16. Match the following :-

(1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(2) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s
(3) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
(4) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s

17. The given table shows the number of electrons, neutrons and protons in some atoms or ions elements

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) A is a cation while C is anion.
(2) B and C are atoms of different elements.
(3) E has a nucleon number 24 and it is a metal.
(4) None of these

18. Some elements and ions with their valencies are enlisted in the given table:

Select the incorrect match.

(1) (i), (iv), (v), (vii) and (ix)
(2) (iv), (vi) and (vii)
(3) (i), (viii), (ix) and (x)
(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (ix)

19. Read the given process carefully. What are A, B and C respectively?

(1) Gypsum, Lime, Plaster of paris
(2) Calcium sulphate, Gypsum, Plaster of paris
(3) Lime, Plaster of paris, Gypsum
(4) None of these

20. Carbon dioxide, made up of elements carbon and oxygen, contains 27.2% by mass of carbon. What mass of oxygen will combine with 10g of carbon?

(1) 26.7g
(2) 3.74g
(3) 7.28g
(4) 4.28g

21. Aluminium and copper are extracted from their oxide and sulphide ores respectively. Which of the following is correct?
(I) Copper is extracted by the auto reduction of copper oxide by copper sulphide.
(II) Aluminium cannot be obtained by chemical reduction due to its strong affinity for oxygen.
(III) Smelting process (reduction with carbon) is also used for Aluminium.
(IV) Sulphide ores of copper are difficult to be reduced than the oxide ores.

(1) I, II and IV
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) II and IV

22. A car battery was accidentally knocked over and the sulfuric acid was spilt onto a marble floor. It was observed that the acid began to fizz, indicating a gas was produced. Which gas is most likely to be produced?

(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Hydrogen
(3) Oxygen
(4) Sulphur dioxide

23. Among the following statements, the incorrect one is

(1) Calamine and siderite are carbonates.
(2) Argentite and cuprite are oxides.
(3) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides.
(4) Malachite and Azurite are ores of copper.

24. The diagram below shows a model of an atom that was developed following Rutherford's experiment

Which component of the atom is not represented in Rutherford's atomic model?

(1) The neutrons
(2) The nucleus
(3) The electrons
(4) The protons

25. Which of the following pairs are isotopes?

(1) Oxygen and ozone
(2) Ice and steam
(3) Nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide
(4) Hydrogen and deuterium

26. Gold and platinum group metals are found in nature in metallic form because

(1) they are solids at room temperature.
(2) they are highly reactive.
(3) they are soluble in water.
(4) they are relatively inert.

27. Which metal can prevent the corrosion of iron?

(1) Zn
(2) Cu
(3) Pb
(4) Ag

28. A silver article turns black when kept open in air for few days. The article when rubbed with toothpaste again starts shining because

(1) hydrogen peroxide present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver sulphate.
(2) hydrated silica present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver oxide.
(3) aluminium hydroxide present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver hydroxide.
(4) calcium carbonate present in the toothpaste reacts to give silver carbonate.

29. Consider the following statement :
(i) Pb(OH)Cl is an acid salt.
(ii) A solution contain pH = 0 is neutral in nature.
(iii) If the concentration of (OH⁻) is 10⁻² then the pH of solution is 12.
(iv) Blood is slightly basic in nature.

(1) All statement are correct
(2) Only (iii) and (iv) is correct
(3) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) is correct
(4) Only (iii) is correct

30. Match the following –

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

Section-C: Biology

31. ______________ is responsible for the recovery of water and sodium chloride from the urine

(1) Bowman's capsule
(2) Ureter
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Urinary bladder

32. Which of the following parts labelled in the given figure contains oxygenated blood?

(1) A, B and C only
(2) A, B, C and F only
(3) D, C and E only
(4) B, D and E only

33. In which of the following maximum reabsorption of glomerular filtrate occurs?

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Henle's loop
(4) Collecting duct

34. In which of the following plants, there will be no transpiration?

(1) Completely submerged aquatic plants
(2) Plants growing in deserts
(3) Plants in tropical rainforest
(4) Plants growing in hilly regions

35. Urea is mainly formed in

(1) Liver
(2) Kidney
(3) Lung
(4) Heart

36. The translocation in plants includes the transport of ____________ into the phloem tissue using energy.

(1) Glucose
(2) Starch
(3) Sucrose
(4) Fructose

37. Choose the correct pair of digestive enzyme found in the pancreatic juice which is responsible for digestion of fats and carbohydrates respectively from the given options.
I. Lipase    II. Pepsin    III. Amylase    IV. Erepsin

(1) I and II
(2) II and IV
(3) I and III
(4) I, II and III

38. Given below is the diagram of human alimentary canal with parts labelled as A, B, C and D. With reference to it identify the part which is longer in deer as compared to that of lion.

(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) A

39. Observe the given diagram carefully. Identify gases A, B and the process by which exchange of gases takes place respectively.

(1) A : CO₂, B : O₂, Process : Active transport
(2) A : O₂, B : CO₂, Process : Active transport
(3) A : CO₂, B : O₂, Process : diffusion
(4) A : O₂, B : CO₂, Process : diffusion

40. Which of the following is / are incorrectly paired?
(a) Apis mellifera : little bee
(b) Sahiwal : Shows excellent resistance
(c) Jersey : Have a long lactation period
(d) Murrah : A high yielding variety of cow

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a and d

41. Refer the given figure of a nephron with some parts labelled as D, E, F, G, H and I. Match the labelled parts with the functions given below and select the correct option.

(i) 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed.
(ii) Water is reabsorbed under the influence of vasopressin.
(iii) Site of ultrafiltration.

42. Where is larynx positioned in the respiratory tract?

(1) Between pharynx and trachea
(2) Between bronchi and alveoli
(3) Between trachea and bronchi
(4) Between pharynx and nasal cavity

43. The given demonstration of an experiment is to prove that

(1) Sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis
(2) Chlorophyll is essential for photosynthesis
(3) O₂ is evolved during photosynthesis
(4) CO₂ is necessary for photosynthesis

44. Some species of fish can be cultured in a single fish pond. These fishes do not compete for food as they have different food habits. In the following options, fishes are paired with their food habits. Select the incorrect match.

(1) Rohu - Column feeder
(2) Silver Carp - Surface feeder
(3) Mrigal - Bottom feeder
(4) Catla - Column feeder

45. Structural and functional unit of nervous system

(1) Nephron
(2) Neuron
(3) Alveoli
(4) Both (2) and (3)

Section-D: Mathematics

46. From 87x + 53y = 15; 53x + 87y = −155, find the value of x − y is

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) can't be determined

47. On division by 6, a² cannot leave remainder

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3

48. Find the largest positive number that will divide 396, 434 and 540 leaving the remainder 5, 9 and 13 respectively.

(1) 15
(2) 13
(3) 17
(4) 19

49. From the given figure, find x, y, z if GE ∥ AF.

(1) 95°, 58°, 50°
(2) 85°, 58°, 50°
(3) 95°, 85°, 95°
(4) 95°, 85°, 50°

50. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, E is midpoint of AD.
ar(ΔBED) / ar(∥^gm ABCD) = ____________

(1) 4/3
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 3/4

51. If α, β, γ are the zeroes of x³ − 7x + 2; the value of (α + β)⁻¹ + (β + γ)⁻¹ + (γ + α)⁻¹ is

(1) 0
(2) 7/2
(3) −7/2
(4) None of these

52. If 5 cos A − 12 sin A = 0 then (sec² A − 1) / (2 tan A + sec A) is (0 ≤ A < 90°)

(1) 144/169
(2) 55/144
(3) 25/276
(4) 169/144

53. In the given figure, AP and BP are tangents drawn from an external point P. If angle between tangents is 60°, then find ∠x + ∠y + ∠z.

(1) 60°
(2) 120°
(3) 100°
(4) 150°

54. On rolling of 2 dice, the probability of getting sum less than 7 is

(1) 5/12
(2) 2/3
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/2

55. A floral design of a floor is made up of 16 tiles which are triangular in shape. The side of the triangle being 9 cm, 28 cm and 35 cm. The cost of polishing the tiles at 50 paisa/sq cm is __________ (√6 = 2.45)

(1) Rs. 289
(2) Rs. 288
(3) Rs. 705.6
(4) Rs. 500

56. The radius of two spheres is in the ratio 4 : 5 then, the ratio of their volumes is

(1) 4:5
(2) 64:125
(3) 16:25
(4) 5:4

57. Factorize the following polynomial x + 8xy³.

(1) x(1 − 2y)(1 − 2y + 4y²)
(2) x(1 + 2y)(1 − 2y + 4y²)
(3) x(1 + 2y)(1 + 2y + 4y²)
(4) x(1 − 2y)(1 + 2y + 4y²)

58. If T_n = sinⁿ θ + cosⁿ θ, then (T₃ − T₅) / T₁ is equal to.

(1) (T₅ − T₇) / T₃
(2) (T₃ − T₅) / T₇
(3) (T₉ − T₆) / T₄
(4) (T₆ − T₉) / T₄

59. Mean weight of a group of 30 students is 62.5 kg. A student (weight 71.5 kg) left the group and a new student (weight 53.5 kg) joined the group. The new mean of the group will be

(1) 60 kg
(2) 63.5 kg
(3) 61.9 kg
(4) 59.5 kg

60. In the given figure, PB is tangent to the circle, ∠AOB = 60°, PB = 30√3 cm. Find length of AB.

(1) 15 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 30√3 cm

Section-E: Mental Ability

61. In the following question, a series is given with next figure missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series

62. At what time between 5 and 6 will the hands of the clock Coincide?

(1) 27 3/11 min past 5
(2) 34 5/11 min past 5
(3) 24 2/11 min past 5
(4) 25 3/11 min past 5

63. If we interchange − with + and 10 with 1000, then what will be the answer for the equation given below?
1000 − 100 + 100 − 10

(1) 1009
(2) 999
(3) 1000
(4) 1100

64. In a row of persons, position of A from left side of the row is 9th & position of M from right side of the row is 8th. If N is sitting just in middle of A & M and position of N from left side of the row is 15th. Find the total number of persons in the row?

(1) 27
(2) 29
(3) 28
(4) 30

65. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8:30

(1) 80 Degrees
(2) 75 Degrees
(3) 60 Degrees
(4) 105 Degrees

66. Count the number of triangles in the given figure.

(1) 26
(2) 28
(3) 32
(4) None of these

67. What number should be replace the question mark?

(1) 29
(2) 91
(3) 92
(4) 19

68. In the following question, statements are given followed by conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: Some roads are city. All city are table.
Conclusions:
1. Some roads are table.
2. Some city are roads.

(1) Only 1 follows
(2) Only 2 follows
(3) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(4) Both 1 and 2 follows

69. Read the following information carefully to answer the question that follows.
'P − Q' means 'Q is father of P'
'P * Q' means 'Q is brother of P'
'P + Q' means 'Q is wife of P'
'P ÷ Q' means 'Q is sister of P'
Which of the following means M is the grandfather of T?

(1) T − C ÷ L + N * M
(2) T − R ÷ Z + L * M
(3) T ÷ Z * L + F − M
(4) None of these

70. Find the number of triangles from the given figure.

(1) 11
(2) 12
(3) 7
(4) 9

71. When Sanju saw Mahesh, he recalled, "He is the son of the father of my daughter." How is Mahesh related to Sanju?

(1) Son
(2) Brother
(3) Uncle
(4) Father

72. How many leap years are there from 1701 to 1900 (both are included):

(1) 50
(2) 49
(3) 48
(4) None of these

73. Eight players are standing to play 'Standing Kho-Kho'. Geeta is at the third place to the right of Mahesh. Amar is at the first place to the right of Geeta. Asha is to the fourth place to the left of Geeta. Radha is at central place between Parag and Asha. Meena is at the central place between Geeta and Hemant. Then
Who is at the fifth place to the left of Geeta?

(1) Mahesh
(2) Asha
(3) Parag
(4) Radha

74. Point B is 12 meters south of point A. Point C is 24 meters east of point B. Point D is 8 meters south of point C. Point D is 12 meters east of point E and point F is 8 meters north of point E. If a man is standing facing north at point C, then how far and in which direction is point F with respect to man?

(1) 12 meters west
(2) 24 meters east
(3) 12 meters east
(4) 24 meters west

75. Jetplanes P, Q, R and S started flight towards east. After flying 125 kms planes P and S flew towards right while planes Q and R flew towards left. After 115 km, planes Q and R flew towards their left while Planes P and S also turned towards their left. In which directions are the Jetplanes P, Q, S, R respectively flying now?

(1) North, South, East, West
(2) East, West, West, East
(3) East, West, East, West
(4) South, North, North, South

76. Which number replace the question mark in the figure given below?

(1) 236
(2) 426
(3) 266
(4) 256

77. If C = 24 and X-RAY = 40, then WHAT = ?

(1) 56
(2) 57
(3) 58
(4) 55

78. Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
J, K, L, M, N, O and P are seven kids playing in the garden. They are wearing clothes of black, blue, white, green, pink, yellow and brown colours, out of these seven three are girls. No girl is wearing either black, yellow or brown, M's sister L is wearing pink, while he is wearing brown. J is wearing blue, while his sister K is not wearing green, N is wearing yellow, while his best friend P is a boy.
What colour are sister of J and M wearing?

(1) Pink and Green
(2) Pink and Yellow
(3) White and Green
(4) White and Pink

79. In the questions below, a problem figure is given. The problem figure is hidden in one of the figures given as alternatives. Find the figure in which the problem figure is hidden.

80. There are two/three statements followed by four conclusions numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements: Some cars are trains. Some trains are cats.
Conclusions:
1. No car is cat.
2. Some cats are trains.
3. Some cars are cats.
4. All trains are cars.

(1) Either 1 or 2 and 3 follows
(2) Either 1 or 2 and 4 follows
(3) Either 1 or 3 follows and 2 follows
(4) None of these

Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test Exam Pattern 2026-27

The ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 10 exam pattern includes objective-type questions from five subjects. The offline examination contains 80 questions, while the online examination has 100 questions. Each correct answer carries four marks, and one mark is deducted for every incorrect answer. Both exam modes have a duration of two hours.

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex​ Sample Paper 2026-27

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex PYQs for Class 5 to 10 PDF

👉 Also Check: Allen TALLENTEX Syllabus 2026-27

Benefits of Solving Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test

Solving the Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test PDF helps students become familiar with the question format and difficulty level. It allows them to practise different types of questions, revise important concepts and improve their problem-solving skills.

Regular mock test practice also helps students improve their speed and accuracy. Students can identify difficult topics, reduce common mistakes and learn how to manage their time during the examination. They can also use the answer key to check their responses and evaluate their performance.

How to Prepare Using TALLENTEX Class 10 Mock Test Papers?

Students should first revise important chapters from the Allen TALLENTEX Class 10 syllabus. After completing their revision, they can download the mock test PDF and attempt all 80 questions within the two-hour time limit.

Once the test is complete, students should check their answers using the provided answer key. They should review incorrect responses, focus on weak topics and practise more questions to strengthen their preparation.