ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 PDF Download

The ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 PDF helps students prepare for the Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE). Students can practise important questions based on the ANTHE 2026 sample paper and exam pattern. The mock test includes questions from Science, Mathematics, and Mental Ability to help students understand the question format and improve their exam preparation.

In this post, we've provided the ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with a separate answer key and short solutions. Students can download these PDFs to practise questions, check their answers, and improve their problem-solving skills.

ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026: Overview

The ANTHE 2026 Class 10 mock test contains 40 multiple-choice questions carrying a total of 90 marks. Students have 1 hour to complete the paper, and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Download ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 PDF

Students preparing for ANTHE 2026 can download the ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test with answer key and solutions PDF from below. The practice paper includes 40 multiple-choice questions based on the provided ANTHE sample paper.

👉 Download PDF: ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 PDF

ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 – Questions

Science – Section I

Q1. A car accelerates uniformly from 18 km h⁻¹ to 54 km h⁻¹ in 10 s. The distance covered by the car in this time interval is

1. 25 m
2. 50 m
3. 75 m
4. 100 m

Q2. For the given displacement-time graph, the most appropriate velocity-time graph is

1. Option (1) graph
2. Option (2) graph
3. Option (3) graph
4. Option (4) graph

Q3. A constant force is applied on a mass m and produces an acceleration 6 m/s². Another mass M is tied together with m and the same force produces an acceleration 4 m/s². If the same force is applied on mass M only, then the acceleration produced is

1. 8 m/s²
2. 10 m/s²
3. 12 m/s²
4. 14 m/s²

Q4. SI unit of power is

1. Horsepower (hp)
2. Megawatt (MW)
3. Kilowatt (kW)
4. Watt (W)

Q5. A ball is allowed to fall from a height of 10 m. There is 60% loss of energy every time it hits the ground. After second impact with the ground, the ball will rise up to

1. 10 m
2. 1.6 m
3. 2.4 m
4. 6 m

Q6. It is advised to tie our luggage kept on the roof of a bus. Because when the bus accelerates, it may fall

1. Backward
2. Forward
3. To the right of the bus
4. To the left of the bus

Q7. The process of conversion of dry ice into carbon dioxide gas is an example of

1. Dissociation
2. Sublimation
3. Vaporisation
4. Fusion

Q8. Solution A is prepared by dissolving 10 g of sugar in 50 g of water. Further 5 g more sugar is added to A and the obtained solution is evaporated to make the final mass of solution 50 g. This solution is marked as B. Then 50 g of another aqueous sugar solution with concentration 20% (w/w) is added to B to obtain solution C. The concentration (w/w) of the final solution C is

1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 30%

Q9. Number of neutrons in protium and tritium respectively is

1. 1 and 2
2. 0 and 2
3. 0 and 1
4. 1 and 3

Q10. In the following table, some elements are given and their symbols are replaced by A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C and D and choose the correct option.

1. A = S, B = Fe, C = Le, D = Go
2. A = Si, B = Ir, C = Le, D = Ag
3. A = Ag, B = Fe, C = Pb, D = Au
4. A = Au, B = Fe, C = P, D = Ag

Q11. The percentage abundance of two isotopes ¹⁸Y and ¹⁶Y of an element Y is 10% and 90% respectively. The average atomic mass of element Y is

1. 16.8 u
2. 16.2 u
3. 17.3 u
4. 17.6 u

Q12. The solubility of sodium chloride at 50°C and 30°C is 54 g and 36 g respectively. Sarita is advised to prepare a saturated solution of sodium chloride containing 50 g of water at 50°C and then allow it to cool till 30°C. The amount of salt precipitated out will be

1. 27 g
2. 18 g
3. 9 g
4. 15 g

Q13. The solution which has higher solute concentration than the cell is called

1. Safranin solution
2. Isotonic solution
3. Hypotonic solution
4. Hypertonic solution

Q14. Which of the following is a living plant cell?

1. Tracheid
2. Vessel
3. Xylem fibre
4. Companion cell

Q15. Which of the following processes would be affected, if ribosomes are removed from a eukaryotic cell?

1. Lipid synthesis
2. Protein synthesis
3. ATP generation
4. Detoxification of cell

Q16. Ligaments connect

1. Bone to another bone
2. Muscle to muscle
3. Bone to muscle
4. Tendon to bone

Q17. Apical meristem is present at: (a) The growing tips of stems and roots. (b) The girth of the stem or root. Select the correct option.

1. Both (a) and (b) are true
2. Only (a) is true
3. Only (b) is true
4. Both (a) and (b) are false

Q18. Which of the following muscle fibre(s) is/are multinucleated?

1. Only (a)
2. Only (b)
3. Only (c)
4. Both (a) and (c)

Science – Section II

Q19. The speed of a car increases at a constant rate x from zero to v, and then moves with constant speed for an interval of time and finally decreases to zero at a constant rate y. If L is the total distance travelled, then choose the correct options.

1. Total time taken is L/v + v/2(1/x + 1/y)
2. Total time taken is L/v + v(1/x + 1/y)
3. Distance travelled during constant velocity is L − v²(1/x + 1/y)
4. Distance travelled during constant velocity is L − v²/2(1/x + 1/y)

Q20. In a mixture the components retain their individual identities. So, it is possible to separate them by employing various methods. Which of the following statements is/are correct about separation techniques?

1. Chromatography is used for the separation of those solutes that dissolve in the same solvent but to different extent
2. Separation of plasma, platelets, white and red blood cells from blood is done by centrifugation
3. Fractional distillation is used to separate a mixture of two or more immiscible liquids for which the difference in boiling points is more than 25 K
4. Alum acts as a coagulant in coagulation process

Q21. Select the correct option(s) for the labelled parts (A–D) in the given figure of plant cell depicted above.

1. A – Chloroplast
2. D – Golgi apparatus
3. C – Mitochondrion
4. B – Plasma membrane

Mathematics – Section I

Q22. The value of 3.4̅2 + 8.0̅53 is equal to

1. 1733/150
2. 5231/450
3. 5143/495
4. 3787/330

Q23. Degree of zero polynomial is

1. 0
2. 1
3. 100
4. Not defined

Q24. The distance between the points (0, 4) and (−4, 0) is

1. 4√2 units
2. 16 units
3. 8 units
4. 4 units

Q25. 5^th term of the geometric progression 6, 18, 54, is

1. 364
2. 486
3. 572
4. 384

Q26. Which of the following rational numbers does not lie between 7/11 and 11/13?

1. 0.851̅
2. 0.637̅
3. 0.732̅
4. 0.64̅

Q27. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. The value of 2t is equal to

1. 180° − x + y
2. 360° − y − z
3. 360° + y + z
4. y + z − 360°

Q28. Area of cyclic quadrilateral with sides 21 cm, 20 cm, 20 cm and 25 cm is

1. 138√473 cm²
2. 276√11 cm²
3. 138√11 cm²
4. 69√11 cm²

Q29. A bag contains 11 white, 15 pink and 10 black marbles. A marble is drawn at random. What is the probability that the marble drawn is not pink?

1. 11/12
2. 5/12
3. 15/31
4. 7/12

Q30. In the given figure, BD = DC and ∠DBC = 36°. The measure of ∠BAC equals

1. 36°
2. 108°
3. 48°
4. 72°

Q31. If the perimeter and the area of a sector of a circle are 25 cm and 38.5 cm² respectively, then the central angle can be equal to

1. 30°
2. 45°
3. 60°
4. 90°

Mathematics – Section II

Q32. If x^3/2 + x^−3/2 = 3 (x ≠ 0) such that ax⁶ + b/x⁶ + c = d, where a = b, c is an even prime and a, b, d are natural numbers, then which option(s) is/are correct?

1. √(a + b + c) = 2
2. √d = 7
3. (1/7)√(2abcd) = 2
4. √(d − 4b − a − 4c) = 6

Mental Ability – Section I

Q33. Count the number of circles in the given figure.

1. 13
2. 10
3. 11
4. 12

Q34. Mohan and Seema are son and daughter of Manish respectively. Reena is wife of Manish and daughter-in-law of Ramlal. Seema is granddaughter of Sita, who is mother of Manish. How is Sita related to Mohan?

1. Grandmother
2. Granddaughter
3. Mother
4. Aunt

Q35. Complete the given series.

1. Option (1) figure
2. Option (2) figure
3. Option (3) figure
4. Option (4) figure

Q36. A man is facing towards North. He turned by 225° in the clockwise direction and 540° in the anticlockwise direction. In which direction is he facing now?

1. North-West
2. North-East
3. South-East
4. South-West

Q37. What is next term in the following series? 1.5, 3, 9, 36, 72, 216, 864, 1728, ?

1. 5080
2. 4083
3. 4184
4. 5184

Q38. Complete the figure matrix.

1. Option (1) figure
2. Option (2) figure
3. Option (3) figure
4. Option (4) figure

Q39. In a queue, Madan and Sankar are ranked 18^th and 23^rd respectively from the top in 55 people. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the queue?

1. 39, 34
2. 38, 34
3. 37, 33
4. 38, 33

Mental Ability – Section II

Q40. If 6#7@8 = 203, 5#9@4 = 90 and 7#6@9 = 262, then which of the following option(s) follow(s) the same operation?

1. 7#9@6 = 178
2. 6#5@6 = 150
3. 4#8@9 = 177
4. 8#4@3 = 125

ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026: Exam Pattern

The ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 follows a 90-mark question paper format. It includes two sections with single-correct and multiple-correct questions.

Students should read the instructions carefully before attempting each section. There is no negative marking for wrong answers.

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Sample Paper

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Syllabus 2026

👉 Also Check: ANTHE Previous Year Question Paper

Benefits of Solving ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026

Practising the ANTHE Class 10 Mock Test 2026 helps students become familiar with the exam pattern and question types. It also helps them improve accuracy, time management, and problem-solving skills.

Students should try to complete all 40 questions within 60 minutes. After finishing the test, they can check their answers using the provided answer key and solutions PDF. Regular practice also helps students identify weak topics and focus on areas that need improvement.