Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

The Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test 2026-27 helps students prepare for the upcoming TALLENTEX examination. By solving mock tests, students can understand the exam pattern, practise important questions and improve their accuracy. The mock test covers Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Mathematics and Mental Ability, helping students revise important concepts and strengthen their preparation.

Students can download the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test PDF to practise exam-style questions and check their preparation level. Regular practice helps students identify weak topics, improve problem-solving skills and manage their time effectively during the examination.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test 2026-27: Overview

The Allen TALLENTEX examination is a scholarship and talent assessment exam conducted by ALLEN Career Institute. The Class 9 mock test follows the offline exam pattern and contains 80 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four options, with only one correct answer. Students can check the important exam details below.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF Download

Students preparing for the examination can download the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test 2026-27 PDF to practise important questions. The practice paper contains 80 MCQs covering all five subjects. Students should attempt the complete paper within the two-hour time limit to assess their preparation and improve their exam performance.

Students can access the Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test PDF and its answer key through the links provided below.

👉 Download PDF: ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test 2026-27

Allen TALLENTEX 2026-27 Class IX Mock Test – Questions

Section A: Physics

1. In the figure of human eye shown below, which of the labelled parts gives it its distinctive colour?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2. Velocity of a car at t = 0 is u. It moves with a constant acceleration α and then decelerates at a constant rate β for some time and gains its initial velocity. If the total time taken is T, the maximum velocity of the car is given by:

(1) u − αβT/(α + β)
(2) u + αβT/(α + β)
(3) u − αβT/(α − β)
(4) u + αβT/(α − β)

3. India has built and launched several satellites. The first Indian satellite built by ISRO was:

(1) INSAT-1A
(2) Aryabhatta
(3) Apple
(4) Bhaskara-I

4. At what altitude would the value of g become one fourth of that on the surface of the Earth? (where g is acceleration due to gravity, R is radius of Earth)

(1) √2 R
(2) 4R
(3) R
(4) R/2

5. Mars orbits the sun at a distance of 2.3 × 10¹¹ m. The mass of the sun is 2 × 10³⁰ kg and mass of Mars is 3.4 × 10²³ kg. Approximately what is the gravitational force that the sun exerts on Mars? (G = 6.7 × 10⁻¹¹ N m²/kg²)

(1) 1.6 × 10²⁰ N
(2) 1.6 × 10²¹ N
(3) 3.7 × 10²¹ N
(4) 3.7 × 10³² N

6. The diagram shows the relative strengths of the gravitational force for planets of different masses. The size of each planet represents the planet's relative mass. The arrow length indicates the relative amount of gravitational pull that each planet would exert on an astronaut in space. The relationship between the mass of the planets (M) and the relative strength of their gravitational pull (F) is:

(1) F ∝ M
(2) F ∝ 1/M
(3) F ∝ M²
(4) F ∝ 1/M²

7. A 10 N force acts on a 2 kg body at rest. Neglecting all other forces on the body, we can say that the body:

(1) has an acceleration of 5 m/s²
(2) has momentum of 30 N-s after 3 seconds of force application
(3) has a speed of 10 m/s after 2 seconds of force application
(4) all of the above options are true

8. Two plane parallel mirrors A and B reflect a ray of light as shown below. What is the angle of reflection at the point of incidence A?

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

9. On a 60 cm × 60 cm carrom board, a carrom coin placed at the centre is hit by the striker. The coin moves to the front edge, rebounds and strikes the mid point of the right side limb and stops. The displacement of the coin is:

(1) 30√2 cm
(2) 30 + 30√2 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 60 cm

10. Objects on the surface of Earth experience a large downward force although the universal gravitational constant is very small. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon?

(1) Objects on Earth's surface exert a gravitational pull as strong as Earth's, regardless of the gravitational constant.
(2) The universal gravitational constant only describes relationships between small objects in outer space.
(3) Earth's mass is large enough that its gravity remains strong even when multiplied by a small constant.
(4) The universal gravitational constant increases in proportion with the mass of an object.

11. How many types of tectonic plate boundaries are classified on the basis of geologic characteristics and process associated with them?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

12. What is the rate of change of velocity of a body having uniformly accelerated motion if its velocity increases by 10 m/s in 5 seconds?

(1) 5 m/s²
(2) 2 m/s²
(3) 0 m/s²
(4) 10 m/s²

13. A toy car of 400 g has the given graph for its motion. The magnitude of force acting on it would be:

(1) 1.8 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 3.6 N

14. According to the law of gravitation, gravitational force F = Gm₁m₂/r². Here m₁ = mass of first body, m₂ = mass of second body, r = separation between them, G = universal gravitational constant. The graph between G and r is:

15. The graph below represents the change in velocity of four cars over a period of 6 seconds. Which line represents the car with the greatest acceleration?

(1) Line 1
(2) Line 2
(3) Line 3
(4) Line 4

Section B: Chemistry

16. An element M has an atomic number 9 and atomic mass 19. Its ion will be represented by:

(1) M
(2) M²⁺
(3) M⁻
(4) M²⁻

17. Sudha tested the solubility of four salts, A, B, C and D at different temperatures and collected the following data. A student prepared a saturated solution of A at 323 K and then added 25 g water to it. What mass of A must be added to make the saturated solution at 323 K?

(1) 35 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 25 g
(4) 15 g

18. Statement 1: Petroleum is a dark oily liquid and a mixture of various constituents.
Statement 2: The process of separating various constituents of petroleum is known as Refining.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.

19. Two liquids A and B have the same boiling point. Liquid A is kept at sea level and B is kept at a mountain top. Which of the following is the correct observation on heating?

(1) Liquid A boils at lower temperature than B
(2) Liquid B boils at lower temperature than A
(3) Both A and B boil at the same temperature
(4) Cannot be determined

20. Match the column:

(1) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-p
(2) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p
(3) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p
(4) A-p, B-s, C-r, D-q

21. A family consumes 12 kg of L.P.G. in 30 days. Calculate the average energy consumed per day, if the calorific value of L.P.G. is 50 kJ/kg.

(1) 10,000 J/day
(2) 15,000 J/day
(3) 20,000 J/day
(4) 25,000 J/day

22. Among the following, the substance which does not have a fixed set of properties is:

(1) Water
(2) Sodium chloride
(3) Iron
(4) Lemonade

23. Choose the correct statement:

(1) The value of latent heat of vapourization is less than the value of latent heat of fusion for H₂O.
(2) The substance having high specific heat takes more time to increase its temperature by 1°C.
(3) Water is used in radiators of cars because it has low specific heat.
(4) Latent heat of fusion for water is 540 calories/gm.

24. Which of the following is true about combustion?

(1) Combustion occurs in the presence of oxygen.
(2) The substances react with hydrogen in combustion.
(3) It produces light and heat.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

25. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?

(1) Solar energy
(2) Biogas
(3) Geothermal energy
(4) Coal

26. Which one among the following does not show sublimation?

(1) I₂(s)
(2) CO₂(s)
(3) CCl₄(l)
(4) NH₄Cl(s)

27. The substances which have very low ignition temperature will _______.

(1) catch fire easily
(2) not catch fire
(3) catch fire after sometime
(4) none of these

28. From the given sets of examples of colloids, choose the sets where both examples are aerosols.
(a) Smoke and fog
(b) Smog and froth
(c) Dust in air and clouds
(d) Soda water and whipped cream

(1) a and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) c, b and d
(4) c and d

29. In an experiment to note the temperature of ice, as heat is supplied to it till it is completely converted into water, the temperature as noted by a student at the instant when the complete ice just melted will be:

(1) 0°C
(2) 0°C gradually rising to 100°C
(3) 0°C suddenly rising to 100°C
(4) none of these

30. When a candle burns in air, what are the products formed?

(1) CO₂ + H₂O + Heat
(2) CO₂ + H₂
(3) CO + H₂
(4) CO + O₂

Section C: Biology

31. Which tissue of plant has the following characteristics?
• Responsible for growth in plant
• Having large and prominent nucleus
• Thin cell wall
• No or very small vacuole
• Intercellular space absent

(1) Meristematic tissue
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Sclerenchyma

32. Ankit is a good baker. He took ½ kg maida, added some sugar and then mixed it with warm water. Then he added yeast powder and kneaded it to make soft dough. After two hours, he observed the dough rising as shown in the given figure. What could be the possible reason for the rising of dough?

(1) Rising of dough is due to warm water and sugar which produce bubbles on mixing.
(2) Rising of dough is due to yeast; it produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Bubbles of the gas occupy the space in dough and increase its volume.
(3) Rising of dough is due to warm water and maida which produce air bubbles on kneading.
(4) Rising of dough is due to yeast; it produces oxygen during respiration. Bubbles of the oxygen occupy the space in dough and increase its volume.

33. The plasma membrane of an animal cell consists of:

(1) Proteins, lipids and cellulose
(2) Lipids, proteins and carbohydrates
(3) Proteins, pectin and cellulose
(4) Hemicellulose, proteins and lipids

34. The diagram given below shows the cross section of phloem tissue in plant. Identify the correct statement with reference to the labelled part.

(1) Part (1) shows sieve tubes which are nucleated, cylindrical in shape and tapering, composed of elongated thick walled cells.
(2) Part (3) shows companion cells which are found associated with sieve tube. They have dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus.
(3) Part (2) shows phloem parenchyma which helps in radial conduction of water.
(4) Part (4) shows sieve plate which has the end walls perforated by pores present in the companion cell.

35. The time and frequency of irrigation varies from:

(1) Crop to crop
(2) Soil to soil
(3) Season to season
(4) All of these

36. Which of the following statements is incorrect for cell organelles?

(1) Membrane biogenesis is the function of ER.
(2) Leucoplast is a double membrane bound organelle and pigments are absent.
(3) Lysosome and ribosome both are single membrane bound organelles.
(4) Ribosome is a universal cell organelle.

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect about food preservation?

(1) Sugar reduces the moisture content which inhibits the growth of bacteria which spoil food.
(2) Sodium benzoate and sodium metabisulphite are chemical preservatives that prevent microbial growth.
(3) Salting is used to preserve amla, raw mangoes, tamarind etc.
(4) In the process of pasteurization, milk is heated to about 70°C for 15 to 30 minutes and then suddenly chilled and stored.

38. Which labelled part provides the support for development of baby?

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

39. Refer to the following diagram of a leaf cross section. The cell type W is likely to contain an abundance of which organelle?

(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

40. Dolly sheep was genetically similar to:

(1) The mother from which enucleated egg cell was taken
(2) Scottish blackface ewe
(3) The mother from which nucleated udder cell was taken
(4) Both surrogate mother and the donor mother

41. Identical animal cells were placed in solutions with different concentrations. The diagram shows the volume of the cells at the start and the end of the experiment. Identify from the following options which cell was placed in hypertonic solution.

42. If the same crop is grown in a piece of land year after year, it:

(1) reduces the fertility of the soil
(2) increases the fertility of the soil
(3) does not affect the fertility of the soil
(4) helps in increasing production

43. Which of these epithelia is chiefly involved in functions like diffusion and thereby is found in the wall of blood vessels and air sacs of the lungs?

44. Identify X in the given Venn diagram.

(1) Golgi body
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Nucleus

45. Study the given Venn diagram. Identify 'P' and the group of microorganisms to which it belongs.

(1) Penicillium, bacteria
(2) Clostridium, bacteria
(3) Lactobacillus, protozoa
(4) Lactobacillus, bacteria

Section D: Mathematics

46. If (x + a)(x + b)(x + c) = x³ − 10x² + 45x − 15, then a² + b² + c² is equal to:

(1) 100
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 50

47. How many positive integers between 10 and 2016 are divisible by 3 and have all of their digits the same?

(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 6
(4) 18

48. The cube root of 140608 is:

(1) 42
(2) 152
(3) 72
(4) 52

49. The value of (√63 − √45) / (√7 − √5) is:

(1) √7 + √5
(2) √9
(3) √3
(4) 9

50. (3⁵ ÷ 3⁸)⁵ × 3⁻⁵ = ________.

(1) 3⁻¹⁹
(2) 3²⁰
(3) 3⁻²⁰
(4) 1/3

51. If x² + y² + z² − xy − yz − xz = 0, then which of the following is true?

(1) x ≠ y ≠ z
(2) x = y = z
(3) x ≠ y = z
(4) x = y ≠ z

52. The area of a square is 100 601/900 cm², then the length of the side of the square is:

(1) 10 1/30 cm
(2) 10 7/30 cm
(3) 10 3/5 cm
(4) 10 9/30 cm

53. The area of a parallelogram is 91 cm² and one of its altitudes is 13 cm. The length of its corresponding side is:

(1) 13 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 7 cm

54. If (2x − 3) is a factor of 2x⁴ − x³ − 3x² − 2x + a, then the value of 'a' is:

(1) −3
(2) 2
(3) −2
(4) 3

55. The sides of a hexagon are produced in order. Which of the following is the sum of its exterior angles?

(1) 540°
(2) 270°
(3) 360°
(4) 720°

56. A grey squirrel has 65 nuts gathered in its nest, and a red squirrel has 114 nuts gathered in its nest. A wily woodpecker steals nuts from both squirrels' nests. It steals 2/3 as many nuts from the nest of the grey squirrel as it steals from the nest of the red squirrel. After the woodpecker takes the nuts from both nests, the red squirrel has twice as many nuts left as the grey squirrel has. How many nuts is the grey squirrel left with?

(1) 33
(2) 36
(3) 48
(4) 30

57. The Monday after Thanksgiving is now called "Cyber Monday" and is the busiest online shopping day of the year. On Cyber Monday 2004, credit card users for one company spent 4/5 of the amount of money they spent on Cyber Monday in 2005. What percent more money was spent in 2005?

(1) 30%
(2) 25%
(3) 20%
(4) 35%

58. In the diagram, AB is parallel to DC and ACE is a straight line. The value of x° is:

(1) 35°
(2) 30°
(3) 40°
(4) 45°

59. If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 72 m, find the radius of the protractor. (π = 22/7)

(1) 15 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 16 m
(4) None of these

60. Seema types 270 words in half an hour. How many words would she type in 5 minutes?

(1) 36
(2) 45
(3) 40
(4) 50

Section E: Mental Ability

61. A man starts from his house and walks 10 km in South direction, then he turns right and goes 6 km, again he turns right and goes 10 km and finally turns right and goes 6 km. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?

(1) 2 km, North
(2) 3 km, South
(3) At the starting point
(4) 4 km, East

62. If 'YAASPYAW' stands for 'ACCURACY', how will you write 'QSAACQQ'?

(1) TOMORROW
(2) REASONS
(3) SUCCESS
(4) IAGRAM

63. In the following number series, how many 8's are there which are exactly divisible by the numbers which are preceded and followed by it?
8 2 4 5 1 7 2 8 4 8 4 2 2 8 2 6 9 8 4 5 4 8 3 2 8 4 3 1 8 3

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64. A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways. If 1 is opposite to 5 and 2 is opposite to 3, then:

(1) 4 is adjacent to 3 and 6
(2) 2 is adjacent to 4 and 6
(3) 4 is adjacent to 5 and 6
(4) 6 is adjacent to 3 and 4

65. If 'BARS' = 10 and 'BEERT' = 10, 'DEEZ' will be?

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 10

66. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

67. In the given question, three sequences of letters/numbers are given which correspond to each other in some way. You have to find out the letters/numbers that come in the vacant places marked by (?). These are given as one of the four alternatives under the question.

(1) a, b, a, b
(2) a, c, a, c
(3) c, b, c, b
(4) c, d, c, d

68. When the following figure is folded to form a cube, how many dots would lie opposite to the face bearing five dots?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69. Saurav starts from a definite point and moves towards East travelling a distance of 2 m. Then he turns to his right and travels 5 m. From here he turns to his right and travels 8 m. Finally he turns to his right and moves 13 m. How far is he now from his starting point?

(1) 8 m
(2) 26 m
(3) 14 m
(4) 10 m

70. How many squares are there in the given figure?

(1) 24
(2) 20
(3) 27
(4) 34

71. If a * b = a + b² and a # b = a² + b, then what is the value of (4 * 3) − (4 # 3)?

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) −6
(4) −4

72. Choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the three given classes: Atmosphere, Hydrogen, Oxygen

73. Find the missing term.

(1) U
(2) T
(3) W
(4) None of these

74. According to the given information, answer the following question.
(i) Ankit and Bobby are brothers.
(ii) Chandni is sister of Ankit.
(iii) Deepak is brother of Esha.
(iv) Esha is daughter of Bobby.
Who is the uncle of Deepak?

(1) Ankit
(2) Bobby
(3) Esha
(4) None of these

75. There is a figure to the left of the vertical parallel lines. Examine the figures given in the alternatives and find the one which is the exact mirror image of the figure given to the left of the vertical lines.

76. Find the next number in the given series: 4, 10, 23, 50, 105, ?

(1) 215
(2) 210
(3) 216
(4) 439

77. Choose the correct water image of the question figure from the given answer figures.

78. Study the following diagram and then answer the given question. Which number indicates Professors who are Medical Specialists?

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11

79. Sarita is the wife of the grandson of Somesh's mother. How is Somesh related to Sarita?

(1) Grandmother
(2) Father
(3) Father-in-law
(4) Husband

80. The figures in the following question follow a series. Select the figure from the given alternatives which would continue the series.

Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test Exam Pattern 2026-27

The ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 9 exam pattern includes objective-type questions from five subjects. The offline examination contains 80 questions, while the online examination has 100 questions. Each correct answer carries four marks, and one mark is deducted for every incorrect answer. Both examinations have a duration of two hours.

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex​ Sample Paper 2026-27

👉 Also Check: Allen Tallentex PYQs for Class 5 to 10 PDF

👉 Also Check: Allen TALLENTEX Syllabus 2026-27

Benefits of Solving Allen TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test

Solving the ALLEN TALLENTEX Class 9 Mock Test PDF helps students become familiar with the question format and difficulty level. It allows them to practise subject-wise questions, revise important concepts and improve their problem-solving skills.

Regular mock test practice also helps students improve their speed and accuracy. They can identify difficult topics, reduce common mistakes and learn how to manage their time during the examination. Students can use the answer key to check their responses and evaluate their performance.