ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 PDF Download

The ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 helps students prepare for the Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE). In this post, we’ve provided the ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with an answer key and detailed solutions. Students can download these PDFs to practise important questions and prepare for the ANTHE 2026 examination.

Students can practise important questions based on the ANTHE 2026 syllabus and exam pattern. The mock test covers Science, Mathematics, and Mental Ability. It helps students understand the question format, improve accuracy, and manage their time during the exam.

Students can download the ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with a separate answer key and detailed solutions to check their performance.

ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026: Overview

In this post, we've provided the ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 PDF along with the answer key and detailed solutions. Students can check the complete mock test details in the table below.

Particulars	Details
Exam Name	Aakash National Talent Hunt Exam (ANTHE)
Exam Year	2026
Conducting Body	Aakash Educational Services Limited (AESL)
Mock Test Name	ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026
Class	9th
Subjects	Science, Mathematics and Mental Ability
Total Questions	40 MCQs
Maximum Marks	90 Marks
Exam Duration	1 Hour
Section I	35 Single-Correct MCQs
Section II	5 Multiple-Correct MCQs
Negative Marking	No
Mock Test Language	English
Mock Test Format	PDF
Answer Key & Solutions	Available in PDF

Download ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 PDF

Students preparing for ANTHE 2026 can download the Class 9 mock test PDF from the below. The practice paper includes questions from Science, Mathematics, and Mental Ability based on the ANTHE exam pattern.

👉 PDF Download: ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026 with Solution

ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026

Science | Section I | Single Correct Answer Type

Q1. A liquid is filled in three containers A, B and C up to heights h/2, 2h/3 and 5h/2, respectively. If P_A, P_B and P_C are the pressures exerted by the liquid at the bottom of the containers A, B and C, respectively, then P_A : P_B : P_C is:

(1) 3 : 4 : 15
(2) 1 : 2 : 5
(3) 2 : 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4 : 5

Q2. Three forces F₁, F₂ and F₃ of 20 N, 30 N and 50 N, respectively, are acting on three blocks, each of mass M, as shown in figures (a), (b) and (c). Assuming that the blocks remain at rest, the force of friction acting on the block is:

(1) Maximum in figure (a)
(2) Maximum in figure (b)
(3) Maximum in figure (c)
(4) Equal in figures (a), (b) and (c)

Q3. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a uniform speed of 20 m/s on a straight, smooth surface. The extra force required to keep it moving with the same speed is:

(1) 4 N
(2) 100 N
(3) Zero
(4) 1/4 N

Q4. Select the incorrect statement for sea-breeze.

(1) Air over the sea is cooler and has higher pressure
(2) Direction of wind is from sea to land
(3) Air over the sea is warmer and has higher pressure
(4) It flows during the day

Q5. The longer lead of an LED is always connected to:

(1) Positive terminal of the battery
(2) Negative terminal of the battery
(3) Any of the terminals of the battery
(4) None of the terminals of the battery

Q6. What happens to the strength of an electromagnet if the current flowing through it is increased?

(1) The strength decreases
(2) The strength remains the same
(3) The strength increases
(4) The electromagnet becomes a permanent magnet

Q7. The interparticle attractive force between the constituent particles is maximum in S₁, whereas the thermal energy of the particles is minimum in S₁, intermediate in S₂ and maximum in S₃. S₃, S₁ and S₂, respectively, are:

(1) Solids, gases and liquids
(2) Solids, liquids and gases
(3) Gases, liquids and solids
(4) Gases, solids and liquids

Q8. Which of the following is an example of a mixture?

(1) Brass
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Sugar
(4) Argon

Q9. Which of the following statements is true about gases?

(1) They have definite shape and volume
(2) Their particles are tightly packed
(3) They occupy all the available space
(4) They cannot be compressed

Q10. When a solid turns into a liquid, interparticle spaces:

(1) Become zero
(2) Decrease
(3) Increase slightly
(4) Remain constant

Q11. The level of water increases initially on adding sugar but may decrease to some extent after dissolution because:

(1) Water evaporates
(2) Sugar reacts with water and sublimes
(3) Sugar particles occupy spaces between water particles
(4) Sugar gets converted into water

Q12. 'Z' is a chemical compound that enhances the taste of food. 'Z' is formed by combining a soft metal 'X' and a hazardous gas 'Y'. 'X', 'Y' and 'Z', respectively, can be:

(1) Hydrogen, oxygen and water
(2) Iron, sulfur and iron sulfide
(3) Sodium, chlorine and sodium chloride
(4) Magnesium, oxygen and magnesium oxide

Q13. Non-communicable diseases:
(a) Are usually linked to lifestyle, diet and environment.
(b) Can spread from one person to another.
Select the correct option.

(1) Only (a) is true
(2) Only (b) is true
(3) Both (a) and (b) are false
(4) Both (a) and (b) are true

Q14. The correct order for the level of organisation in the body of a living organism is:

(1) Tissue → Cell → Organ → Organism → Organ system
(2) Cell → Tissue → Organ → Organ system → Organism
(3) Organ → Tissue → Cell → Organism → Organ system
(4) Cell → Organ → Tissue → Organ system → Organism

Q15. Typhoid is a:

(1) Viral disease
(2) Bacterial disease
(3) Fungal disease
(4) Protozoan disease

Q16. Select the incorrect match.

Diseases	Their sites of infection
(i) Chickenpox	Skin
(ii) Tuberculosis	Lungs
(iii) Hepatitis A	Liver
(iv) Cholera	Respiratory tract

(1) (iii)
(2) (ii)
(3) (i)
(4) (iv)

Q17. The onion peel cells have an extra outer layer called the:

(1) Cell membrane
(2) Nucleus
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Cell wall

Q18. Yeast belongs to the group:

(1) Fungi
(2) Virus
(3) Bacteria
(4) Protozoa

Science | Section II | One or More Than One Correct Answer Type

Q19. Which of the following precautions would you have taken if you were stuck in a cyclone-hit area?

(1) Do not touch wet switches and fallen power lines
(2) Store drinking water for emergencies
(3) Pressurise the rescue force by making undue demands
(4) Don't cooperate and help your neighbours and friends

Q20. Consider the following elements: Gold, silver, sulfur, carbon, boron, silicon and caesium. If the numbers of metals, non-metals and metalloids are x, y and z, respectively, then choose the correct option(s).

(1) x + y − z = 3
(2) x + z − y = 3
(3) x + z − y = 2
(4) x² + y² = z²

Q21. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the organism shown in the given figure?

(1) It belongs to group Protozoa
(2) It is a nitrogen-fixing organism
(3) It belongs to group Fungi
(4) It is a causative organism of cholera

Mathematics | Section I | Single Correct Answer Type

Q22. If 5 : 3 :: a : 63, then the value of 3a is:

(1) 315
(2) 105
(3) 445
(4) 225

Q23. The sum of Roman numbers MCCCVIII and MMCCXXX in the Egyptian system is:

Q24. Rajeev organised a party at home for 25 friends in which 5 kg of rice was consumed. If Sahil wants to organise a party for 40 friends, how much rice will be consumed?

(1) 5 kg
(2) 7 kg
(3) 8 kg
(4) 9 kg

Q25. If x + 1/x = 11, then the value of x² + 1/x² is:

(1) 117
(2) 118
(3) 119
(4) 121

Q26. In the given figure, FIRE is a parallelogram. If ∠FER = 65°, then the value of (x + y − z) is:

(1) 230°
(2) 185°
(3) 165°
(4) 205°

Q27. The smallest perfect square divisible by 3, 4, 5 and 6 is:

(1) 600
(2) 900
(3) 450
(4) 1200

Q28. The value of 'x' so that 5^3x = 15625 is:

(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 3

Q29. The expression [(7⁻³)² × 7⁻⁴ × 7¹¹] / 7² equals:

(1) 7
(2) 7⁻²
(3) 1/7
(4) 1

Q30. If the following multiplication holds, then the value of B is equal to:

  A B
  × 6
  ───
  B B B

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 8

Q31. For which of the following figures are all angles always equal?

(1) Square
(2) Rhombus
(3) Parallelogram
(4) Kite

Mathematics | Section II | One or More Than One Correct Answer Type

Q32. If the following values of A, B and C are given, then the correct option(s) is/are:

A = (∛2744 × ∛216) / ∛(64/729)
B = ∛13824 ÷ ∛216
C = ∛[(31 + 33 + 35 + 37 + 39 + 41) / (3 + 5)]

(1) (B + C)³ ends with 3
(2) Unit's digit of (A + B)³ is 7
(3) A / (B + C) is a perfect cube number
(4) B³ − C³ can be written as 1 + 4 × 3 × 3

Mental Ability | Section I | Single Correct Answer Type

Q33. The two figures on either side of ':' follow a certain relationship. Bearing the same relationship, choose the correct option that can replace the (?).

Q34. Which of the following letters is present more than 5 times in the following sequence?
d a a b c b e a a d b e e c c a d d b b b c c

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

Q35. Count the total number of squares in the given figure.

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 7

Q36. Find the mirror image of the following image.

Q37. In a certain code language, 'MOST' is coded as 'UURQ' and 'FIVE' is coded as 'FXIJ'. How will 'FOUR' be coded in the same code language?

(1) SWRJ
(2) JRVS
(3) SWSJ
(4) JRJS

Q38. Choose a correct option to complete the given series.
360, ?, 180, 60, 15, 3

(1) 240
(2) 300
(3) 360
(4) 270

Q39. Five consecutive problem figures from a definite sequence are given, and it is required to select one of the figures from the set of answer figures that will continue the same sequence.

(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) (D)

Mental Ability | Section II | One or More Than One Correct Answer Type

Q40. Choose the correct pair(s) which follow(s) the same relation.
7842 : 108 :: 9647 : 160 :: 8427 : 90

(1) 4289 : 128
(2) 9267 : 128
(3) 4279 : 117
(4) 9842 : 147

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Benefits of Solving ANTHE Class 9 Mock Test 2026

Practising the ANTHE Class 9 mock test helps students become familiar with the examination pattern and types of questions. It also helps them identify weak topics and improve problem-solving skills.

Students should try to complete the entire mock test within 60 minutes. After finishing, they can use the answer key and solutions to review their mistakes and understand the correct methods.